1. The processes in project management have been classified into knowledge areas and.

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1 Fundamentals 1 & 2 1. The processes in project management have been classified into knowledge areas and. a) Methods b) Process Group c) Categories d) Best practices 2. The application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements is referred as: a) Project initiation b) Project coordination c) Project administration d) Project management 3. All of the following are examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors except: a) Organizational culture b) Political climate c) Performance measurement criteria d) Existing facilities and infrastructure 4. The person or organization that provides the funding or financial resources for the project is referred to as the: a) Customer b) Sponsor c) Steering committee d) Project Management Office 5. During the project lifecycle stakeholder identification is expected to be: a) A continuous and sometimes difficult process b) The responsibility of the project sponsor c) Completed prior to the approval of the project charter d) Focused only stakeholders who will be impacted favorably as a result of the project 6. The end of a project phase is generally considered to be: a) The formal authorization to begin the next project phase b) A natural point to assess project performance and determine if the project should continue c) The points in the project life cycle where risk is at its lowest level d) The point where formal control procedures of the project are generally enforced 7. All of the following statements about the project life cycle are true, except: a) Cost and staffing are at the highest levels during the start of the project b) Risk is at the highest levels of uncertainty at the start of the project c) The control needs of the organization will determine how many phases will be included in the project life cycle d) Project phases are typically completed sequentially but can be overlapped to accelerate completion of a project 8. As you are defining the project in more detail and moving through the phases of the project, you are engaged in which of the following? a) Progressive elaboration b) Project selection c) Monitoring and Controlling d) Decomposition 9. All of the following are generally considered characteristics of a project except: a) Unique undertaking b) A temporary endeavor with specific starting and ending dates c) Ongoing and continually supporting organizational operations d) Completed when all objectives are achieved or terminated when the project objectives are no longer viable 1

2 10. Your company is introducing a new product to be available in the first quarter of the next business cycle. The product will support an existing product as an add-on optional feature. Which of the following is true? a) This is an ongoing operation because the previous product is already in use by customers b) This is a project because it involves a new product that has not been previously developed c) This is an operation because it adding a feature will be part of an ongoing sales effort d) This is a program that supports the operations of the company 11. Generally, a project manager s level of authority during their project assignment can be directly related to which of the following? a) The project manager s relationship with the project sponsor b) The organizational structure c) The project manager s communications skills d) The project manager s technical competency 12. A significant advantage of the functional organizational structure is: a) All employees are grouped by expertise and assigned to one clear manager b) Communication between the elements of each functional group is fast and efficient c) Project work is considered to be priority work in all functional groups d) Resources are easily shared across functional groups 13. The initiating process group includes all of the following except: a) Stakeholder identification b) Business case development and review c) A contract or statement of work d) Project scope statement 14. The set of combined processes implemented by the project manager to ensure all the elements of the project are effectively coordinated are known as: a) Project execution b) Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs c) Project Integration Management d) Project Monitoring and Control 15. are applicable restrictions that will affect project performance a) Organizational policies b) Performance guidelines c) Constraints d) Additional planning requirements Framework 1. The PM process framework consist of: a) 10 Knowledge Areas, 47 Process Groups and 5 ITTOs b) 47 Processes, 5 Process Groups and 312 ITTOs c) 5 Process Groups, 47 Processes and 10 Knowledge Areas d) 47 ITTOs, 10 Processes, 47 Knowledge Areas 2. In what Process Group would you obtain approval from the sponsor for the Project Charter? a) Initiating b) Planning c) Executing d) Monitoring & Controlling 3. In what Process Group would you assess detailed requirements, assumptions and constraints? 2

3 a) Initiating b) Planning c) Executing d) Monitoring & Controlling 4. In what Process Group would you obtain and manage project resources? a) Initiating b) Planning c) Executing d) Monitoring & Controlling 5. In what Process Group would you measure project performance and manage changes? a) Initiating b) Planning c) Executing d) Monitoring & Controlling 6. In what Process Group would you transfer ownership of deliverables to the appropriate stakeholders? a) Planning b) Executing c) Monitoring & Controlling d) Closing Integration Management 1. All of the following are points where projects can intersect with operational activity at various points during the product life cycle except a) At closeout phases b) During development of a new product c) While monitoring and controlling d) During improvements in operations 2. A group of related projects is known as what? a) Life Cycle b) Program c) Portfolio d) PMO 3. What does OPM3 measure? a) The level of variance between project management best practice and the actual application b) The interdependency of projects within a program of work c) An organization s project management maturity level d) The ability of a project manager to successfully deliver a project 4. What is the best definition of a project? a) A body of work constrained by finances and time b) A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result c) The ongoing management of a business enterprise to achieve profitability d) An organized effort of work by a team managed by a project manager 5. A body assigned responsibility for the centralized and coordinated management of projects within an organization is known as what? a) Project Management Office b) Project Headquarters c) War Room d) Program Management Office 6. After measuring expected project benefits, your project management office has four projects from which to choose. Project A has a Net Present Value (NPV) of $180,000 and will cost $15,000. Project B has an NPV of $400,000 and will cost $300,000. Project C has an NPV of $300,000 and will cost $25,000. Project D has an NPV of $330,000 and will cost $59,000. Which project would be best? a) Project A b) Project B c) Project C d) Project D 3

4 7. What is a recommended method for controlling change within a project? a) Have each change approved or rejected through a formal change control process. b) Freeze scope and allow absolutely no changes. c) The project manager is the only one with the ability to initiate change. d) Provide each project member with ultimate control of changes within their realm of the project without a review process. 8. Which process is concerned with providing forecasts to update current cost information? a) Monitor and Control Project Work b) Close Project or Phase c) Direct and Manage Project Work d) Project Management Information System 9. Claire is beginning a new project, when should she use the Perform Integrated Change Control process? a) Only when closing out the project b) Only after the project is completely funded c) Throughout the entire project d) Only after the project scope is clearly defined 10. As a project manager you have been tasked to a program in which you will work with researchers. The program involves selecting research projects, matching available funding to each research proposal, monitoring progress of each research project, and cancelling research projects that cannot meet predefined milestones and benchmarks. During the project execution, the earned value management technique will serve as the primary cost control assessment tool to determine whether a project is progressing according to the project management plan. What must you do as the project manager to facilitate the applications of the earned value technique on various research projects? a) Monitor the implementation of approved changes and manage project risks b) Compare actual project performance to the project management plan c) Assess project performance to determine if corrective actions are needed d) Establish project baselines, and capture overall progress and variances 11. Documented change requests must either or by the change control board. a) Accepted, rejected b) Reviewed, deferred c) Accepted, deferred d) Reviewed, accepted 12. Project managers need to perform change control from the start through the end of the project. Which configuration management activity is not part of the Perform Integrated Change Control process? a) Configuration verification and auditing b) Configuration status accounting c) Architecture configuration and control d) Configuration identification 13. Which statement best describes the purpose of using preventive actions in a project? a) Increases the project budget to allow for some overrun on costs b) Reduces the probability of negative consequences related to risks c) Increases reporting frequency on activities that are critical d) Reduces the impact of negative consequences related to risks 4

5 14. Which of the statements below best describes the project s change control board (CCB)? a) It is headed by the project manager b) It is required only on large projects c) It is responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines d) It is a subcommittee of the configuration management board 15. Under which of the following conditions would the transfer of finished and unfinished deliverables take place? a) Legal dispute b) End of contract c) End of a key deliverable d) Project termination 16. The set of combined processes implemented by the project manager to ensure all the elements of the project are effectively coordinated are known as: a) Project execution b) Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs c) Project Integration Management d) Project Monitoring and Control 17. The document that assigns a project manager and officially authorizes a project to use organizational resources for the purpose of planning, executing and controlling a project is the: a) Project Charter b) Project Plan c) Scope Statement d) Work Authorization Form 18. A project manager schedules meetings for many different reasons. Status review meetings are typically: a) Held to provide all stakeholders with critical project information b) Held to exchange information about the project between project team members c) Held to update departmental staff of project status d) Held only when there is a need for a workaround 19. is any documented procedure used to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance for the purpose of identifying, recording, and controlling any changes to product characteristics. a) Scope Change Control b) Schedule Change Control c) Quality Control d) Configuration Management 20. A consists of the data sources, tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, analyze and disseminate the results of the combined outputs of the project management processes. a) Project management planning system b) Project controls system c) Project communication system d) Project management information system 21. Assumptions are factors used for planning purposes and may be communicated to a project team by several different stakeholders. These factors, when stated, are generally considered to be true, real or certain and are: a) Absolute and non-negotiable b) Not always based on factual information c) Estimates d) Easy to understand and communicate 5

6 22. The project management plan is used to: a) Provide project inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs to be used on the project for the purpose of managing the product of the project b) Guide project execution, document project planning assumptions, and facilitate communication among stakeholders c) Provide general management, product quality, and project management information which is communicated to all stakeholders d) Create organized policies using stakeholders skills and knowledge, then itemized and catalogued in the corporate knowledge base 23. are usually included to support the overall project management plan and are developed for the purpose of providing more detailed information, guidelines and control processes for specifically defined project elements or planning components. a) Change request forms b) Performance reports c) Subsidiary plans d) Statements of work 24. During the planning process the project manager should be aware that assumptions generally involve: a) A degree of risk b) Direction from the Sponsor c) Financial controls d) Detailed, factual information 25. are applicable restrictions that will affect project performance a) Organizational policies b) Performance guidelines c) Constraints d) Additional planning requirements 26. is a formal, approved document that includes the collection of outputs of the planning process and is used to manage and control project execution. a) The project management plan b) The organizational process asset document c) The organizational procedures document d) The work authorization system 27. Risk plans, quality plans, and change control plans are all to the project plan. a) Constraints b) Appendixes c) Additions d) Subsidiaries 28. is the primary process for carrying out the project plan. a) Configuration management b) Direct and Manage Project Work c) Administrative management d) Monitor and Control Project Work 29. As a project manager, you must ensure that changes are coordinated across the entire project life cycle from conception to completion. The process that focuses on this requirement is: a) Managing the Triple Constraint b) Change management integration c) Perform integrated change control d) Configuration management 30. A project is being executed and is progressing through its life cycle. You notice a significantly large percentage of project changes occurring on the project have been originated by the research department. What should you do? a) Assign a team member to work solely with the research department b) Change your communication plan to ensure that you, as the project manager, are the only person assigned to interface with the 6

7 research department c) Ask the research department to assign one person to be your liaison d) Schedule a meeting with the research department to review the change process and determine the causes of the changes 31. You are managing an information technology project. A technical specialist on your team, after having an informal meeting with a low ranking customer representative working on the project, determines that a simple alteration would be a great addition to the project. You and the project sponsor have already signed off on the scope and a change control process is in place. The technical specialist installs the change with no negative effect to the project schedule and at no additional cost. What management action should be taken? a) The technical specialist should be recognized for exceeding customer expectations without affecting project cost or schedule b) The project manager should add a task to the project plan with no additional scheduled time and note that there was no increased budget c) The technical specialist should be informed their actions were not authorized and was inconsistent with the change management plan d) The project manager should create a change control form, and have the customer sign-off, since the change has already been made 32. Two months into a design project, the customer requested a modification to the product specifications. The change was immediately implemented by the project team without notifying the project manager. During the final testing phase, results were different than what was planned. This scenario is an example of which of the following? a) Poor adherence to the change control process b) Poor adherence to the communication plan c) Poor development of the quality management plan d) Poor definition of the test plan *All questions were obtained from the following sources: 1) Whitaker, S. (2013) PMP Examination Practice Questions for the PMBOK Guide, 5th Edition. Lexington, KY. 2) Scordo, C. (2013) PMP Exam Prep: Questions, Answers & Explanations. Walnut, CA: SSI Logic. 3) Estrella, J., Duncan, C., Haner, J. et al. (2012) PMP: Practice Makes Perfect. Indianapolis, Indiana: John Wiley & Sons, Inc. 4) Project Management Institute (2013) A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) 5th Edition. Newtown, PA: Project Management Institute. Stakeholder Management 1. Which of the following is not an input to the Identify Stakeholder Process: a) Project Charter b) Procurement Documents c) Lessons Learned d) Stakeholder Register 2. All of the following are stakeholder attributes you should analyze as part of the process to identify stakeholders except a) Their interest in the project b) Their personal conflict resolution style c) Their expectations of the project d) Their influence on the project 7

8 3. Tom has just taken over a project that has been underway for 8 months. The project is performing well and is currently reporting a CPI of 1.2 and an EAC of $1.2M. As part of Tom s familiarization process he wants to understand who the stakeholders on the project are. Where would he find this information? a) Organizational process assets b) distribution list c) Stakeholder register d) Stakeholder management strategy 4. You have just taken over a project that is nearing the end of its lifecycle. Shortly after taking control of the project you note that a particular stakeholder is having a negative impact upon the project. You decide that this presents an unacceptable risk to the project and look for a way to manage the stakeholder. Which document will you look for? a) Stakeholder analysis matrix b) Stakeholder register c) Stakeholder analysis d) Stakeholder management appropriation register 5. You are completing the process of communication and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and addressing issues as they occur. Which process are you completing? a) Stakeholder analysis b) Control communications c) Manage communications d) Manage stakeholder engagement 6. An output of the Plan Communications Management process is the communications management plan. This is used as an input into which of the following processes? a) Plan quality management b) Manage stakeholder engagement c) Estimate costs d) Close project or phase 7. As a result of controlling stakeholder engagement on your project you are generating a number of organizational process assets updates relating to monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships, their level of engagement and satisfaction with your project. Which of the following is not an organizational process asset that would be update as a result of this process? a) Project records b) Issue log c) Project presentations d) Stakeholder notifications 8. Status review meetings are utilized in order to: a) Exchange and analyze information about stakeholder engagement b) Avoid confrontation with highpower/low-interest stakeholders c) Manage closely low-power/low-interest stakeholders d) Update critical path on a factual basis regardless of stakeholder expectations 9. Steve is developing the project stakeholder management strategy. All enterprise environmental factors should be considered during this process. Which of the following enterprise environmental factors should receive particular attention during the process? a) Project Templates b) Commercial Databases c) The organization s culture and structure d) Lessons learned from past similar projects 8

9 10. Eleanor is managing a car design project which is a big project and the success of the project is extremely important for the organization. For mission critical projects, which of the following is the most desirable engagement level for all major stakeholders? a) Leading Stakeholders b) Supportive Stakeholders c) Resistant Stakeholders d) Neutral Stakeholders 11. Project Stakeholder Management is focused on engaging project stakeholders with the project. What is the objective keeping the project stakeholders engaged with the project? a) Using consistent project management methodology across organizational projects b) To manage their expectations so that the project objectives are achieved c) To demotivate the negative stakeholders d) To motivate the project team members 12. Sarah has recently been asked to manage an office refurbishment project. She finds out that the CFO of the company is resisting the project. The CFO is a key project stakeholder. What must Sarah do first? a) Seek support from the project sponsor to force project decisions b) Seek expert judgment from the project initiator c) Analyze options that might change or influence the CFO s perception d) Conduct a team meeting to discuss this issue 13. Chris is managing the development of a mobile phone app. Half of the project work has been completed. Chris is currently reviewing her stakeholder management plan. She finds out that some of the resisting stakeholders have now become supportive. How should Chris update her stakeholder management plan? a) Transfer these stakeholders to the project supporters group but continue with the defined resisting stakeholder management strategy with these stakeholders. b) Transfer these stakeholders to the project supporters group, and for these stakeholders, adopt the stakeholder management strategy defined for the project supporters. c) For these stakeholders, continue with the defined resisting stakeholder management strategy as this strategy has produced positive results so far. d) Do not update the stakeholder management plan at this stage as things are getting better. 14. You are showing your team the relative interest and power each identified stakeholder has in your project. What is the best way to show this information? a) Salience Model b) Control chart c) Stakeholder register template d) Power/Interest Grid 15. Which of the following best describes the manage stakeholder engagement process? a) Adjusting to engage stakeholders b) Developing strategies to engage stakeholders throughout the project c) Keeping track of overall project stakeholder relationships d) Communicating and working with stakeholders to address their needs and issues 9

10 16. Project information has been distributed according to the communications plan. Some project deliverables have been changed and were made according to the change control plan. One stakeholder expressed surprise to the project manager upon being informed of a previously published change to a project deliverable. All other stakeholders received notification of the change. What should the project manager do? a) Inform the stakeholder of the date when the change was approved b) Review the communications plan with the stakeholder and explain his responsibility c) Review the communications plan and make revisions, if necessary d) Address the situation in the next steering committee meeting so others do not miss publish changes 17. During stakeholder analysis the project manager and team may use many different models to classify stakeholders. The model that helps to analyze a stakeholder s ability to impose his or her will or power and influence the need for immediate attention from the project team along with the legitimacy of the stakeholder s involvement is the: a) Power / interest grid b) RAM c) Salience model d) Stakeholder registers 18. Which of the following may NOT be a stakeholder to a project? a) Project Manager b) Project Team c) Everybody in the customer s organization d) Suppliers to the project 19. Stakeholder management involves all of the following EXCEPT: a) Identifying the stakeholders b) Keeping all stakeholders happy c) Analyzing stakeholder expectations d) Managing stakeholder engagement 20. Which of the following should you be most concerned about, during stakeholder analysis? a) Their interest in the project b) Their influence on the project c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B 21. What is the best way to manage stakeholders which are low on power and interest? a) Monitor them b) No need to worry about them c) Treat all stakeholders equal d) Keep them informed 22. Which of the following is a tool to assess the current and desired state of engagement of a stakeholder on the project? a) Stakeholder registers b) Stakeholder management plan c) Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix d) Stakeholder issue log 23. Which of the following is an input to the plan stakeholder management process? a) Stakeholder registers b) Stakeholder management plan c) Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix d) Impact/Power grid 24. Which conflict resolution technique is most likely to result in a permanent resolution? a) Compromise b) Negotiation c) Confrontation d) Smoothing 10

11 25. All of the following is true about critical path activities EXCEPT: a) They have zero float b) Any delay in these will delay the project c) It is the shortest possible path from start to finish d) There may be more than one critical path on a project 26. An important stakeholder in a project is at an unaware state at present, i.e. he does not know what is going on in a project. You reckon that his support could be very important. Which of the following is the BEST way to get him to a supportive state? a) Send him regular reports about the project and its benefits b) Assign some work or review activity to him c) Send him tickets to his favorite opera show d) Give topmost priority to the issues that he has raised 27. Which of the following is a tool and technique used in manage stakeholder engagements process? a) Communication management plan b) Change log c) Issue log d) Inter-personal skills 28. A project manager is reviewing the stakeholder management plan and communications management plan and sending appropriate information to the stakeholders. She sets up meetings with the stakeholders and ensures that their expectations are being realized. She makes sure that any issues that get raised are addressed promptly as far as possible. Which process in stakeholder management is being worked on here? a) Plan stakeholder management b) Manage stakeholder engagements c) Control stakeholder engagements d) Close stakeholder engagements 29. One of the important inputs to the Control stakeholder engagements is: a) Change request b) Issue log c) Information management system d) Work performance information 30. During the execution of a construction project, excavation activities unearth some artifacts that seem to have some archaeological importance. What should the project manager do? a) Ignore the findings and continue work as scheduled b) Inform senior management and continue work as scheduled c) Stop excavation work and call up the archaeological department to quickly research the findings d) Raise a change request *All questions were obtained from the following sources: 1) Whitaker, S. (2013) PMP Examination Practice Questions for the PMBOK Guide, 5th Edition. Lexington, KY. 2) Scordo, C. (2013) PMP Exam Prep: Questions, Answers & Explanations. Walnut, CA: SSI Logic. 3) Estrella, J., Duncan, C., Haner, J. et al. (2012) PMP: Practice Makes Perfect. Indianapolis, Indiana: John Wiley & Sons, Inc. 4) Project Management Institute (2013) A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) 5th Edition. Newtown, PA: Project Management Institute. Scope Management 1. Which of the following is included in the project Scope statement? a) Work breakdown structure b) Product scope description c) Project charter d) Project stakeholder 11

12 2. Which item of the following items is an output of the Control Scope Process? a) Accepted deliverables b) Approved changes c) Change requests d) Project scope management plan 3. Which of the following is not a test element used to verify the correctness of deliverable decomposition in work breakdown structure development? a) Are the activities necessary to produce this sub-deliverable clearly defined? b) Is this sub-deliverable necessary for the completion of the decomposed item? c) Considering all the sub-deliverables together, are they sufficient for completion of the decomposed item? d) Can responsibility for completion of this sub-deliverable be assigned to a specific organizational unit? 4. Which of the following is not part of the project scope statement? a) Project assumptions b) Project constraints c) Product acceptance criteria d) Detailed cost estimates 5. A team member on your project has questioned whether or not the project is delivering as per the original high-level requirements and narrative high level product description, and is concerned that what you are doing has deviated from this. What is your BEST course of action? a) Check the project scope statement b) Check the project charter c) Have the team member assigned to another project as he or she is clearly not a team player d) Check the project management plan 6. The project manager and their project team have spent time decomposing the project scope statement using a work breakdown structure template your organization has. What is the lowest level of the Work Breakdown Structure called? a) Tasks b) Work packages c) Units d) Activities 7. You are using your project management plan, requirements documentation, requirements traceability matrix and undertaking inspection to validate the project and product. What process group are you involved in? a) Closing b) Executing c) Monitoring and Controlling d) Planning 8. You are assessing the magnitude of variation from the original scope baseline. What technique are you utilizing? a) Change control assessment b) Variation change analysis c) Variance analysis d) Scope baseline analysis 9. Which of the following is not a Group Creativity Technique used in the Collect Requirements process? a) Pareto chart b) Mind mapping c) Affinity diagram d) Nominal group technique 10. A project manager wants to use a group decision-making technique to generate, classify and prioritize requirements. Which of these is not a valid group decision-making technique? a) Unanimity b) Singularity c) Dictatorship d) Majority 12

13 11. The work breakdown structure is finalized by establishing control accounts for the work packages and a unique identifier from a code of accounts. This provides a structure for hierarchical summation of: a) Cost, schedule and resource information b) Cost and resource information c) Cost and requirements information d) Schedule and requirements information 12. Carl is a project manager in charge of an online project. The project has completed phase 1 and 2, and is moving into phase 3. For phase 3, which of the following processes must be performed first? a) Develop Project Charter b) Define Scope c) Identify Stakeholders d) Develop Project Management Plan 13. As part of the Verify Scope process, the project team must measure, examine, and verify the project deliverables to ensure adherence to the requirements. Which tool or technique would be most appropriate in performing these tasks? a) Inspection b) Decomposition c) Variance analysis d) Product analysis 14. A project manager has been given a completed project scope statement that they have not seen before. The project manager was asked to manage the project from now on. What is the action the project manager should take? a) Develop a detailed project plan based on the new work breakdown structure b) Call a meeting of the project management team to agree on a procurement plan c) Confirm the project management team developed this statement d) Create a complete network diagram for the tasks and milestones in the project 15. You are a project manager for a large project and have recently taken over the project from another project manager. Upon review of the project schedule, you learn that two major deliverables are missing. Your sponsor reminds you how important it is tom complete the project on time and within the set budget. What part of Scope Management was likely not done properly and should be reviewed and maybe even repeated? a) Critical path analysis b) Stakeholder analysis c) Decomposition d) Integrated change control 16. Determining if the project scope has been completed relies mostly upon the use of: a) Project Charter b) Project Scope Statement c) Statement of Work d) Project Plan 17. You have been selected as the project manager for a major infrastructure upgrade at your company headquarters. This means that: a) A project charter has been approved and signed by management b) Project selection processes have been initiated c) The project plan has been progressively elaborated d) The scope of the project has been verified 13

14 18. As a project manager you should become familiar with the description of the product that will be delivered to ensure that: a) A relationship exists between the product and the business need b) No changes to the product scope will occur c) The project scope can be changed without detailed analysis d) All constraints have been removed 19. The process of planning in increments, adding detail as the plan is developed is known as: a) Scope definition b) Decomposition c) Progressive elaboration d) Rolling Wave Planning 20. The scope statement includes all of the following except: a) Project business objectives b) Project deliverables c) Detailed work breakdown structure d) Product summary 21. You and your team are working together, subdividing the major deliverables of the project into smaller components. You are involved in the process of: a) Scope Planning b) Decomposition c) Initiation d) Scope statement development 22. The process that will help to improve the reliability of cost, duration, and resource estimates is: a) Define scope b) Product analysis c) Cost/Benefit analysis d) Initiation 23. The document that describes in detail, the objectives, project work, deliverables, and product of a project is the: a) Scope statement b) Project Charter c) Work breakdown structure d) Work breakdown structure dictionary 24. Completion of the product scope is measured against: a) Product requirements b) Project requirements c) Project objectives d) Scope statement 25. A work package is: a) A task with a unique identifier b) The first level of the work breakdown structure c) A deliverable oriented grouping of project components d) The work package is the lowest level of the WBS 26. You receive a verbal change request from your client that will impact the agreed upon scope of work. You should: a) Accept the change, document the request then assign someone to oversee it b) Advise the customer that changes to the scope are not acceptable c) Review the change control process with the client d) Accept the change only after ensuring you are not held accountable for additional work. 27. All of the following are included in scope change control except: a) Influencing factors that create scope changes b) Determining that a change has occurred c) Verifying the correctness of work results d) Managing the actual changes when and if they occur 14

15 28. A term used to describe the magnitude of unauthorized variations to the scope of work is: a) Re-planning b) Feasibility analysis c) Scope creep d) Performance measurement 29. Reviews, audits, and walk-throughs are examples of: a) Formal acceptance b) Inspection c) Additional planning d) Internal failure 30. The aids in creating a more detailed definition of the scope of the project and can be used to validate the work of the project. a) Scope baseline b) Work breakdown structure c) Project charter d) Alternatives identification 31. The scope baseline is defined as the: a) Project Scope statement, work breakdown structure and work breakdown structure Dictionary b) Approved project scope statement and charter c) Approved project scope, schedule and budget d) Validated measurements and approved changes 32. The contains detailed descriptions of work packages. a) Work breakdown structure dictionary b) Scope of work statement c) Task-level budget estimates d) Activity cost estimates 33. A scope statement is important because it: a) Provides an executive summary of the project for sponsors b) Documents authorization of the project for the stakeholders c) Provided criteria for determining total project cost d) Defines the product, the project deliverables and user acceptance criteria 34. A stakeholder wants to make a change to the work breakdown structure that does not affect the time or cost of the project. What is the BEST thing to do? a) Tell the stakeholder that the change cannot be made without revising the project plan b) Make the change since it does not affect the schedule or the project budget c) Meet with management to discuss the change control processes d) Have a change request initiated and look for other impacts on the project *All questions were obtained from the following sources: 1) Whitaker, S. (2013) PMP Examination Practice Questions for the PMBOK Guide, 5th Edition. Lexington, KY. 2) Scordo, C. (2013) PMP Exam Prep: Questions, Answers & Explanations. Walnut, CA: SSI Logic. 3) Estrella, J., Duncan, C., Haner, J. et al. (2012) PMP: Practice Makes Perfect. Indianapolis, Indiana: John Wiley & Sons, Inc. 4) Project Management Institute (2013) A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) 5th Edition. Newtown, PA: Project Management Institute. 15

16 Time Management 1. You are the project manager on a project that is currently in the planning stage. You are working on your project schedule. You begin breaking the work packages down in to the actual work necessary to complete the work package. What are you in the process of defining? a) WBS dictionary items b) Activities c) Work package assignments d) Project tasks 2. Which of the following is the most commonly used type of precedence relationship? a) Start-to-start b) Start-to-finish c) Finish-to-start d) Finish-to-finish 3. While estimating the activity durations on your project you come across a similar project completed by your organization last year. To save time you use information from this project to help you estimate your activity durations. This is an example of which tool or technique? a) Parametric Estimating b) Three point estimating c) Analogous Estimating d) Bottom-up estimating 4. The project schedule network diagram is the primary output of which process? a) Control schedule b) Develop schedule c) Define activities d) Sequence activities 5. Bar charts, with bars representing activities, show activity start dates as well as end dates and expected activity durations. For control and management communication, the broader and more comprehensive summary activity that is used between milestones is referred to as: a) Hammock activity b) Activity bridge c) Gantt chart d) Milestone chart 6. The critical path method (CPM) calculates the theoretical early start and finishes dates and late start and finish dates. The difference between the late and early start of a task is called: a) Total float b) Free float c) Feeding buffer d) Danger zone 7. While planning the schedule for your project, you frequently refer to the project calendar. The project calendar is: a) A calendar containing the list of days on which the project team members will be on leave or take an off. b) A calendar that established the dates on which project deliverables are sent to the customer. c) A calendar containing the days on which various meetings are scheduled within the project team. d) A calendar of working days or shifts that establishes those dates on which schedule activities are worked. 8. You have decided to apply Resource Levelling to a project, due to a critically required resource being available only at certain times. Which of the following will likely be true? a) Resource Levelling will require additional resources to complete the project. b) Resource Levelling will never alter the original critical path. c) Resource Levelling can often cause the original critical path to change. d) Resource Levelling will over allocate resources to schedule the project before the deadline. 16

17 9. The project sponsor asked you to audit the schedule of a project in a chocolate factory. The project manager provided you with an earned value of $1,234. The number appeared to be correct. The project baseline shows a planned value of $1,540. What should you do next? a) Present your findings and ask the project sponsor to consider corrective actions. b) Calculate the SPI and tell the project manager that no corrective actions are required. c) Do not trust the project manager; calculate the earned value yourself to be sure. d) Confirm the earned value and thank the project manager for doing a great job. 10. Which of the following statements is correct about a schedule baseline? a) The project calendar is exactly the same as a regular calendar except that Saturdays are always used in the preparation of the overall project schedule. b) The schedule baseline is the basis from which the project management team calculates the project completion date based on optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates. c) Developed from the schedule network analysis, the project management team approves the schedule baseline based on specific baseline start and end dates. d) Reviewed and approved by the project sponsor, the schedule baseline includes the corporate calendar, project calendar, resource calendar, and a list of statutory holidays. 11. Which knowledge area includes processes that ensure the completion of the project within the approved budget? a) Project Resource Management b) Project Cost Management c) Project Risk Management d) Project Schedule Management 12. In your project plan, you budgeted five weeks effort for consultants, but the job was done in only three weeks. Calculate the percentage of variance. a) 40% b) 60% c) 67% d) 120% 13. Which of the following would not suggest that the task could be completed sooner by adding more resources? a) A very small room must be painted. b) Several experiments must be conducted in which the response of mice to various dosages of a new drug will be assessed. c) A telephone installer must connect ten new telephone lines into the trunk line array (a 25 x 20 inch metal box). d) A programming task includes screen development and data modelling. 14. You are using a technique that examines the possible outcomes if a particular situation occurs. What is this technique called? a) Parametric Estimating b) What-if scenario analysis c) Critical chain methodology d) Schedule compression 17

18 15. After one year of construction, an office building is scheduled to be completed on 30 January. The landscaping work needs to start 15 days prior to completion of the building. Which of the following relationships most likely represents the relationship of the start of landscaping work to the completion of the office building? a) Finish-to-start with a 15 day lead b) Start-to-finish with a 15 day lag c) Start-to-finish with a 15 day lead d) Finish-to-start with a 15 day lag 16. Determining activity sequences, developing activity duration estimates and estimating resource requirements are necessary to: a) Define the project b) Develop the work breakdown structure c) Develop the schedule d) Initiate the project 17. All of the following are inputs to the process define activities, except: a) Scope baseline b) Organizational process assets c) Enterprise environmental factors d) Decomposition 18. The software cannot be tested until coding is completed. This is an example of: a) Discretionary dependency b) Soft logic c) Preferential logic d) Mandatory dependency 19. You have been asked to reduce the schedule duration of a major project. Your team suggests overlapping several project activities to reduce the overall duration. This process is known as: a) Crashing b) Fast tracking c) Leveling d) Monte Carlo technique 20. A functional manager for the engineering team has provided you with this information: A work package for the engineering activities will most likely require 12 weeks to complete. If everything goes well, it could take 8 weeks, but there have been times when this work has taken 24 weeks to complete. Based on this information, what is the expected duration of the work package? a) b) c) 44 d) A work package is behind schedule. You decide to add more resources to the activities and use overtime to correct the schedule slippage. This is an example of the technique known as: a) Resource leveling b) Heuristics c) Crashing d) CPM 22. The start of an activity must be delayed until 5 days after the finish of its preceding activity. The correct term for this modification of the logical relationship is: a) Lead b) Lag c) Slack d) Float 23. The most common type of relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is the: a) Start to Finish b) Finish to Finish c) Finish to Start d) Start to Start 18

19 24. Which of the following is not a tool or technique in the Control Schedule process? a) Schedule compression b) Performance reviews c) Resource optimization techniques d) Change requests 25. The technique used to modify the project schedule to account for limited resources or to develop a resource-limited schedule is known as: a) Precedence Diagram Method b) Critical Path Method c) Critical Chain Method d) Schedule Network Analysis 26. What kind of dependencies can be shown by the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)? a) Finish to Start b) Start to Finish c) Start to Start d) Finish to Finish 27. You are in the process of calculating the early and late start and finish dates for your project activities. This form of mathematical analysis is known as: a) Critical Path Method b) Monte Carlo simulation c) Program Evaluation Review Technique d) Activity duration estimating 28. Your sponsor has informed you that a major project activity must be scheduled with a date to start no earlier than June 1. This is an example of: a) A major milestone b) A lag c) A constraint d) An activity duration estimate 29. Your project sponsor contacts you and asks you to provide an estimate on the total duration of a newly approved project. He wants the estimate to be available for a meeting with project stakeholders that has been scheduled for later in the afternoon. The most appropriate estimating technique to meet this need would be: a) A bottom-up estimate b) A definitive estimate c) A PERT estimate d) An analogous estimate 30. How does Free Float differ from Total Float? a) Total Float is the accumulated amount of Free Float b) There is no real difference the two terms are functionally equivalent c) Activity free float is calculated by subtracting its Total Float from the critical path Total Float d) Free Float affects only the early start of any immediately following activities 31. You are working on a software development project, and are about to enter the testing phase. The project requires the installation of specific hardware which is associated with another project that has been delayed. This is an example of: a) Mandatory dependency b) External dependency c) Internal dependency d) Discretionary dependency 32. The tools and techniques of the process Define Activities include all of the following except: a) Decomposition b) Rolling wave planning c) Scope baseline d) Expert judgment 19

20 33. You have been asked to develop a schematic display of the logical relationships of your project s activities. The result of your efforts is the: a) Project network diagram b) Resource breakdown structure c) Work breakdown structure d) Schedule network template Create a network diagram using the following information: Activity Predecessor Duration A Start 2 B A 3 C A 1 D B,C 4 E D 1 F E 2 G E 3 H F,G What is the duration of this project? a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) What is the critical path for this project? a) ABCDEH b) ACDEGH c) ABDEGH d) ABDEFH 36. What is the earliest that activity G can start? a) 9 b) 10 c) 13 d) Typically, during the project planning process, a detailed project network schedule can be created after: a) A scope statement is approved b) The work breakdown structure is created c) An escalation process is agreed upon d) A project control plan is created 38. Generally, projects are planned by developing phases that are performed sequentially. In some cases, it is necessary to accelerate the project life cycle by overlapping project phases. Which of the following best describes this technique? a) The technique of overlapping requires the elimination of minor project activities which results in higher quality b) Overlapping project phases will compress the schedule but will not generally have an effect on project risk c) This technique is known as fast tracking and the risk level should be acceptable before it is implemented d) This technique is known as crashing and can increase the cost of the project but will not affect project risk 20

21 39. What type of relationship is represented in the diagram below: A B a) FS b) SS c) FF d) SF Answer questions based on the diagram below ES 18 EF 29 Activity C LS 12 LF 40. What is the Late Finish of Activity C? a) 23 b) 6 c) 16 d) What is the Float of Activity C? a) 23 b) 6 c) 16 d) What is the duration of Activity c? a) 23 b) 6 c) 16 d) 11 *All questions were obtained from the following sources: 1) Whitaker, S. (2013) PMP Examination Practice Questions for the PMBOK Guide, 5th Edition. Lexington, KY. 2) Scordo, C. (2013) PMP Exam Prep: Questions, Answers & Explanations. Walnut, CA: SSI Logic. 3) Estrella, J., Duncan, C., Haner, J. et al. (2012) PMP: Practice Makes Perfect. Indianapolis, Indiana: John Wiley & Sons, Inc. 4) Project Management Institute (2013) A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) 5th Edition. Newtown, PA: Project Management Institute. 21