lkeku; lpsrrk 9. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl Hkkjrh; jkt; esa nqfu;k dk igyk 10. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl ns'k ds csad us ukxiqj esvªks iz.

Transcription

1 1. jksuh dkwcszv] ftudk gky gh esa fu/u gqvk gs fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl {ks=k ls lacaf/r Fks? (1) izkè;kid (2) fpfdrld (3) euksjatd (4) jktuhfrk 2. fueufyf[kr esa ls ^^egkjkf"vª;u vkwiq n bz;j vwokmz** 2016 ls fdldks leefur fd;k x;k gs? (1) vferkhk cppu (2) fnyhi dqekj (3) vk'kk Hkksalys (4) j.kohj flag 3. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl rkjh[k dks ^^fo'o vkwfvte tkx:drk fnol** ds :i esa euk;k tkrk gs? (1) 2 vizsy (2) 30 ekpz (3) 3 vizsy (4) 31 ekpz 4. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkt; dh dsunz ljdkj us ^^Lons'k n'kzu ;kstuk** ds rgr i;zvu rvh; lfdzv ifj;kstuk dh eatwjh ns nh gs? (1) y{k}hi (2) xksok (3) mm+hlk (4) dsjy 5. fueufyf[kr eas ls izfrf"br isu@czkcs izqhme Vw jkbv vwokmz 2016 ls fdldks leekfur fd;k x;k gs? (1) [kknhtk blekf;yksok (2) bygke VksgVh (3) vgen uth (4) uljhu 6. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk jk"vª 2017 esa ijek.kq vkradokn dk eqdkcyk djsxk? (1) :l (2) csfyt;e (3) Hkkjr (4) vesfjdk ijek.kq lqj{kk f'k[kj leesyu ds fy, vk;kstu LFky D;k Fkk? (1) cz qlsyl (2) okf'kaxvu (3) eqacbz (4) fj;kn 8. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl cs ad us vk/kj ij vk/kfjr,vh,e ds mihkksx lqfo/k dh 'kq:vkr dh gs? (1) ;l csad (2),lchvkbZ (3) Mhlhch (4),fDll csad lkeku; lpsrrk (35 feuv) 9. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl Hkkjrh; jkt; esa nqfu;k dk igyk ^^OgkbV Vkbxj liqkjh** dk mn~?kkvu fd;k x;k gs? (1) if'pe caxky (2) jktlfkku (3) rfeyukmw (4) eè; izns'k 10. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl ns'k ds csad us ukxiqj esvªks iz.kkyh ds fy, ½.k nsus dks rs;kj gs? (1) tkiku (2) tezuh (3) :l (4) dukmk 11. fueufyf[kr esa ls 2016 cgjhu xzkam izhdl f[krkc fdlus thrk gs? (1) flcsflv;u fov~vy (2) fudks jkslcxz (3) dheh jkbdksusu (4) yqbzl gsfeyvu 12. uklkvks fdl ns'k dh jkt/kuh gs? (1) vyckfu;k (2) cgkekl (3) fpyh (4) MsuekdZ 13. fueufyf[kr es a ls fdl Hkkjrh; jkt; ea s f=kacsd'oj eafnj flfkr gs a? (1) if'pe caxky (2) jktlfkku (3) egkjk"vª (4) dukzvd 14. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdlus fo;ruke ds jk"vªifr ds :i esa fdlus 'kifk yh gs? (1) iqke feug fpu (2) Vªkax Fkh ekbz (3) VªWu nkbz Dokax (4) oksax fnug g;w 15. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkt; esa fokku vksj izksn~;ksfxdh ds {ks=k esa muur vè;;u lalfkku voflfkr gs? (1) mùkjk[k.m (2) ef.kiqj (3) if'pe caxky (4) vle 16. dse:u dh eqnzk D;k gs? (1) iz SaQd (2) ikmam (3) ;wjks (4) :i;k Ph: , (M)

2 GENERAL AWARENESS 35 Minute 1. Ronnie Corbett, who has been recently passed away was related to which of the following field? (1) Professor (2) Doctor (3) Entertainer (4) Politician 2. Which of the following has been won with "Maharashtrian of The Year" award 2016? (1) Amitabh Bachchan (2) Dilip Kumar (3) Asha Bhosle (4) Ranveer Singh 3. On which of the following date "World Autism Awareness Day" observes? (1) 2 April (2) 30 March (3) 3 April (4) 31 March 4. Which of the following state's center govt has approved Tourism's coastal circuit project under the "Swadesh Darshan Scheme"? (1) Lakshadweep (2) Goa (3) Orissa (4) Kerala 5. Which of the following has been conferred upon The prestigious PEN/Barbey Freedom to Write Award 2016? (1) Khadija Ismayilova (2) Ilham Tohti (3) Ahmed Naji (4) Nasrin 6. Which of the following nation will hold Combat Nuclear Terrorism in 2017? (1) Russia (2) Belgium (3) India (4) USA 7. What was the venue for 2016 Nuclear Security Summit? (1) Brussels (2) Washington (3) Mumbai (4) Riyadh 8. Which of the following bank has started an Aadhaar based ATM usage facility? (1) Yes Bank (2) SBI (3) DCB (4) Axis Bank 9. In which of the following Indian state world's fir st " White Tiger Safari" has been inaugurated? (1) West Bengal (2) Rajasthan (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Madhya Pradesh 10. Which of the following country's bank is set to provide loan assistance to metro system for Nagpur? (1) Japan (2) Germany (3) Russia (4) Canada 11. Which of the following has been won 2016 Bahrain Grand Prix title? (1) Sebastian Vettel (2) Nico Rosberg (3) Kimi Raikkonen (4) Lewis Hamilton 12. Nassau is the capital of which country? (1) Albania (2) Bahamas (3) Chile (4) Denmark 13. In which of the following Indian state Tirmbakeshwar Temple is situated? (1) West Bengal (2) Rajasthan (3) Maharashtra (4) Karnataka 14. Which of the following sworn in as the President of Vietnam? (1) Pham Minh Chinh (2) Truong Thi Mai (3) Tran Dai Quang (4) Vuong Dinh Hue 15. In which of the following Indian states Institute of Advance Study in Science & Technology is situated? (1) Uttarakhand (2) Manipur (3) West Bengal (4) Assam 16. What is the currency of Cameroon? (1) Franc (2) Pound (3) Euro (4) Rupee Ph: , (M)

3 17. IAAF dk eq[;ky; dgka voflfkr gs? (1) flov~tjysm (2) cfyzu (3) bvyh (4) eksukdks 18. rkboku dh igyh efgyk jk"vªifr ds :i esa fdls fu;qdr fd;k x;k gs? (1) rlkbz f;ax osu (2) ek f;ax thvks (3) psu 'kqbzfc;ku (4) >h ftufiax 19. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkt; esa pkj fnolh; rvh; lqj{kk vh;kl ^^rv lqj{kk** dh 'kq:vkr dh x;h gs? (1) if'pe caxky (2) xksok (3) y{k}hi (4) vameku 20. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdu nks LVs'kuksa ds chp igyh Hkkjrh; lseh gkbz LihM Vsªu ^^xfreku,dliszl** py jgh gs? (1) gtjr futkeqn~nhu & vkxjk (2) vkxjk & eqecbz (3) y[kumq & fnyyh (4) ubz fnyyh & vkxjk 21. fueufyf[kr ea s ls fdls ^gǹ;ukfk iqjldkj 2016* ls leekfur fd;k x;k gs? (1) fojkv dksgyh (2) fo'oukfku vkuan (3) lkfu;k fetkz (4) lkbuk usgoky 22. gky gh esa fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkt; us vfodflr xzkeh.k {ks=kksa esa vk/qfud Ldwy iznku djus ds fy, ^vkn'kz fo ky; (OAV) izkstsdv* yk p fd;k gs? (1) fcgkj (2) vle (3) xqtjkr (4) mm+hlk 23. fueufyf[kr es a ls fdl LFkku es a enzkl ijek.kq LVs'ku voflfkr gs? (1) jkorhkkvk (2) dyidde (3) csaxyq: (4) rkjkiqj 24. gky gh esa] fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkt; us ^^eka vuuiw.kkz ;kstuk** ykap fd;k gs? (1) gfj;k.kk (2) xqtjkr (3) rfeyukmw (4) mùkjk[k.m 25. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl,;jykbu us vius vdlj gokbz ;k=kk djus okys ;kf=k;ksa ds fy,,d ^izh&ism dkmz ;kstuk* ykap fd;k gs? (1),;j bafm;k (2) bafmxks (3) xks,;j (4) LikbltsV 26. fueufyf[kr esa ls lkwývos;j vksj lsok daifu;ksa ds jk"vªh; la?k ds vè;{k ds :i esa fdls fu;qdr fd;k x;k gs? (1) vk'kh"k pvthz (2) js[kk esuu (3) ch oh vkj eksgu jsm~mh (4) lh ih xqjukuh (5) bueas ls dksbz ugha 27. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl ns'k }kjk ^,f'k;kbz jk"vª di 'krjat VwukZesaV VkbVy 2016* thrk x;k gs? (1) bzjku (2) Hkkjr (3) fo;ruke (4) phu 28. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkt; esa ifjokj fu;kstu ij jk"vªh; leesyu laiuu gqvk Fkk? (1) y[kumq (2) fnyyh (3) psuubz (4) eqecbz 29. ^^LVsV csad vkwiq ifv;kyk** dh VSxykbu D;k gs? (1) You can bank always on us (2) A Tradition of Trust (3) Blending Modernity with Tradition (4) Where Indian Banks oha vle fo/kulhkk ds vlfkkbz Lihdj ds :i esa fdls fu;qdr fd;k x;k gs? (1) iquh Hkqlu pks/jh (2) iykuh Hklu pks/jh (3) iquh Hkqlu pks/jh (4) iykuh Hkqlu pks/jh 31. eqacbz esa vk;ksftr lekjksg esa] ^Hkkjr tso fofo/rk iqjldkj 2016* ls fdl Vkbxj fjtoz dks leekfur fd;k x;k gs? (1) idds Vkbxj fjtoz (2) ckanhiqj Vkbxj fjtoz (3) ekul Vkbxj fjtoz (4) dkugk Vkbxj fjtoz 32. lcls igyh uhfr dksu lh gs ftls gky gh esa iz/kuea=kh ujsunz eksnh }kjk eatwjh ns nh x;h gs? (1) jk"vªh; i;zvu uhfr (2) jk"vªh; vks ksfxd fu;kzr uhfr (3) jk"vªh; f'k{kk uhfr (4) jk"vªh; iawth olrq uhfr 33. eqdqfkhz jk"vªh; mn~;ku esa voflfkr gsa (1) dsjy (2) rfeyukmw (3) rsyaxkuk (4) vku/z izns'k Ph: , (M)

4 17. Where is the headquarter of IAAF is located? (1) Switerzerland (2) Berlin 26. Which of the following has been appointed as its Chairman for National Association of Software and Services Companies (3) Italy (4) Monaco (NASSCOM)? (1) Aashish Chatterjee 18. Who has been appointed as first women (2) Rekha Menon president of Taiwan? (3) B V R Mohan Reddy (4) C P Gurnani (1) Tsai Ing Wen (2) Ma Ying - jeou (3) Chen Shiu - bian (4) Xi Jinping 27. Which of the following country has been won the '2016 Asian Nations Cup Chess 19. In which of the following state four day long tournament title'? coastal security exercise "Tat Suraksha" (1) Iran (2) India initiated? (3) Vietnam (4) China (1) West Bengal (2) Goa (3) Lakshadweep (4) Andaman 28. In which of the following states the National Summit on Family Planning was concluded? 20. Between which of the following stations (1) Lucknow (2) Delhi India's first semi-high speed train "Gatimaan (3) Chennai (4) Mumbai Express" is running? (1) Hazrat Nizamuddin - Agra (2) Agra - Mumbai (3) Lucknow - Delhi (4) New Delhi - Agra 29. What is the tag line of "State Bank of Patiala"? (1) You can bank always on us (2) A Tradition of Trust (3) Blending Modernity with Tradition (4) Where Indian Banks 21. Which of the following will be conferred upon 'Hridaynath Award 2016'? 30. Who has been appointed as the pro tem Speaker (1) Virat Kohli (2) Vishwanathan Anand of the 14th Assam Legislative Assembly? (3) Sania Mirza (4) Saina Nehwal (1) Phani Bhusan Choudhary (2) Palani Bhasan Choudhary 22. Recently, which of the following state has launched 'Adarsh Vidyalaya (OAV)' project to provide moder n schools in the (3) Phani Bhasan Choudhary (4) Palani Bhusan Choudhary underdeveloped rural areas? 31. Which tiger reserve has awarded with the 'India Biodiver sity Award 2016'at a (1) Bihar (2) Assam ceremony held in Mumbai? (3) Gujarat (4) Odissa (1) Pakke Tiger Reserve (2) Bandipur Tiger Reserve 23. In which of the following places Madras (3) Manas Tiger Reserve Atomic Power Station is located? (4) Kanha Tiger Reserve (1) Rawatbhata (2) Kalpakkam (3) Bengaluru (4) Tarapur 32. Which is the first ever policy that is recently approved by Prime Minister Narendra Modi? 24. Recently, which of the following state has (1) National Tourism Policy launched "Maa Annapurna Yojna" Scheme? (2) National Industrial Export Policy (1) Haryana (2) Gujarat (3) National Education Policy (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Uttarakhand (4) National Capital Goods Policy 25. Which of the following airline has launched a 'pre-paid card scheme' for its frequent flyers? 33 The Mukurthi National Park is located in. (1) Air India (2) Indigo (1) Kerala (2) Tamil Nadu (3) GoAir (4) SpiceJet (3) Telangana (4) Andhra Pradesh Ph: , (M)

5 34. uhjt pksim+k fdl [ksy ls lacaf/r gs? (1) Vscy Vsful (2) nksm+ (3) 'krjat (4) Hkkyk isqad 35. ^^n cksul vkwiq xzsl** ds ys[kd dksu gsa? (1) lsfyuk gqlsu (2) eksfudk vyh (3) rkgehek vue (4) rlyhek uljhu 36. fdl izfl¼ Luwdj us vcw /kch esa,f'k;kbz 6-jsM Luwdj VkbVy thr dj bfrgkl jp fn;k gs? (1) iadt vkmokuh (2) vkfnr; esgrk (3) fp=kk exhesjkt (4) xhr lsbh 37. la?k yksd lsok vk;ksx ds lnl; ds :i esa fdls fu;qdr fd;k x;k gs? (1) ch,l cllh (2) mn; dqekj (3) lquhy (4),e 'kekz 38. dks'ky fodkl ds fy, fdrus cgq izf'k{k.k dks'ky dsunz [kksys tk,axs? (1) 1000 (2) 1200 (3) 1500 (4) uhfr vk;ksx ds varxzr] {ks=kh; ifj"knksa dh vè;{krk }kjk fd;k tk,xka (1) iz/kuea=kh (2) iz/kuea=kh ;k muds meehnokj (3) mikè;{k (4) eq[; dk;zdkjh vf/dkjh 40. Hkkjr esa fiz av gksus okys csad uksvksa esa fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk,d lqj{kk osf'k"v~; ugha gs? (1) lqj{kk Øe (2) vkwfivdyh ifjorzuh; L;kgh (OVI) (3) ekbøks v{kj (4) jks'kuh (5) xka/h th dh vo;dr Nfo 41. Hkkjr ds fdl jkt; dks ^csafdax dk mn~xe LFky* dgk tkrk gs] D;ksafd Hkkjr ds lkr izeq[k csadksa dh mrifr blh jkt; ls gqbz gs? (1) xqtjkr (2) dukzvd (3) egkjk"vª (4) if'pe caxky 42. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdlus Hkkjrh; :i;s ds izrhd dks fmtkbu fd;k gs? (1) lozs'k ldlsuk (2) jkts'k vjksmk (3) f'kok võ;j (4) mn; dqekj 43. RBI ds uohure fn'kk funsz'kksa ds vuqlkj] psd] fmekam MªkÝV] is; vkwmzlz vksj csadlz psd (tkjh gksus dh fuf/ ls ) dh os/rk vof/ D;k gs? (1) 45 fnu (2) 3 eghus (3) 75 fnu (4) 6 eghus 44. ;wfu;u csad vkwiq bafm;k us e-sbtr (bysdvªkwfud lqjf{kr csad ds Vsªtjh jlhn) esa yk p fd;k gsa (1) jktlfkku (2) fgekpy izns'k (3) es?kky; (4) dsjy (5) egkjk"vª 45. gky gh esa] dksu&lk csad lksus dk flddk tkjh djus okyk Hkkjr dk igyk csad cu x;k gs? (1) bafm;u vksojlht csad (2) fot;k csad (3) LVsV csad vkwiq fcdkusj vksj t;iqj (4) Hkkjrh; csad (5) csad vkwiq cm+ksnk 46. izkfkfed {ks=kksa ds ½.k i=kksa (PSLC) dh lekfir frffk D;k gksrh gs? (1) 1 vizsy (2) 1 ekpz (3) 1 twu (4) 1 tuojh 47. M-cSafdax esa M dk iw.kz :i D;k gs? (1) Money (2) Marginal (3) Message (4) Mutual fund (5) Mobile 48. fdl csad us xqmxkao esa Hkkjr dk izfke fmftvy 'kk[kk yk p fd;k gs? (1) vkbzlhvkbzlhvkbz cs ad (2),fDll csad (3) bamlbam csad (4) lkmfk bafm;u csad 49. fo'o dk izfke fcvdkw;u,vh,e es a voflfkr gsa (1) ;w,l (2) czkthy (3) dukmk (4) ;wds 50. Hkkjrh; y?kq m ksx fodkl csad (SIDBI), fdl,dv ds varxzr LFkkfir fd;k x;k Fkk? (1),lvkbZMhchvkbZ,DV-1989 (2),lvkbZMhchvkbZ,DV-1987 (3),lvkbZMhchvkbZ,DV-1986 (4),lvkbZMhchvkbZ,DV-1985 Ph: , (M)

6 34. Neeraj Chopra is related to which sports? (1) Table Tennis (2) Racing (3) Chess (4) Javelin Throw 35. Who is the author of the book "The Bones of Grace"? (1) Selina Hossain (2) Monica Ali (3) Tahmima Anam (4) Taslima Nasrin 36. Which prominent snooker made history by clinching the Asian 6-Red Snooker title in Abu Dhabi? (1) Pankaj Advani (2) Aditya Mehta (3) Chitra Magimairaj (4) Geet Sethi 37. Who has been appointed as Member of Union Public Service Commission? (1) BS Bassi (2) Udaya Kumar (3) Sunil (4) AM Sharma 38. How many Multi training skill centres will be set up for skill development? (1) 1000 (2) 1200 (3) 1500 (4) Under Niti Aayog, the Regional Councils is chaired by. (1) Prime Minister (2) Prime Minister or his nominee (3) Vice - Chairman (4) Chief Executive Officer 40. Which among the following is not the security features in banknotes printed in India? (1) Security Thread (2) Optically Variable Ink (OVI) (3) Micro letterings (4) Fluorescence (5) Latent Image of Gandhi ji 41. Which State of India is called the 'Cradle of Banking' in India, as seven leading banks of India have originated from this state? (1) Gujarat (2) Karnataka (3) Maharashtra (4) West Bengal 42. Who among the following designed the Indian Rupee symbol? (1) Sarvesh Saxena (2) Rajesh Arora (3) Shiva Iyer (4) Udaya Kumar 43. As per latest RBI guidelines, what is the validity period (from the date of issue) of cheques, demand drafts, pay orders and Banker's cheques? (1) 45 days (2) 3 months (3) 75 days (4) 6 months 44. Union bank of India has launched e-sbtr (Electronic Secured Bank Treasury Receipt) in (1) Rajasthan (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Meghalaya (4) Kerala (5) Maharashtra 45. Recently which has become the first bank in India that has started to issue gold coins? (1) Indian Overseas Bank (2) Vijaya Bank (3) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur (4) Indian Bank (5) Bank of Baroda 46. What is the expiry date of Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLC)? (1) 1 April (2) 1 March (3) 1 June (4) 1 January 47. What does the M in M-Banking stands for? (1) Money (2) Marginal (3) Message (4) Mutual fund (5) Mobile 48. Which bank has launched India's first digital branch in Gurgaon? (1) ICICI Bank (2) Axis Bank (3) IndusInd Bank (4) South Indian Bank 49. World's f irst Bitcoin ATM located in (1) US (2) Brazil (3) Canada (4) UK 50. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), set up under which Act? (1) SIDBI Act-1989 (2) SIDBI Act-1987 (3) SIDBI Act-1986 (4) SIDBI Act-1985 Ph: , (M)

7 ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION (35 Minute) Directions (51-60): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Though the Cold War has ended, selective tactics are still continuing for ensuring the military and economic dominance of developed countries. Various types of technology denial regimes are still being enforced which are now being mainly targeted against developing countries like India. Today, we in India encounter twin problems. On one side there is a large-scale strengthening of our neighbours through supply of arms and clandestine support to their nuclear and missile programmes and on the other side all efforts are being made to weaken our indigenous technology growth through control regimes and dumping of low-tech systems, accompanied with high commercial pitch in critical areas. Growth of indigenous technology and self-reliance are the only answers to the problem. Thus in the environment around India, the number of missiles and nuclear powers are continuously increasing and destruct ive weapons continue to pile up around us, in spite of arms reduction treaties. To understand the implications of various types of warfare that may affect us, we need to take a quick look at the evolution war weaponry and the types of warfare. I am highlighting this point for the reason that in less than a century we could see change, in the nature of warfare and its effects on society. In early years of human history it was mostly direct human warfare. During the 20th century up to about 1990, the warfare was weapon driven. The weapons used were guns, tanks, aircrafts, ships, submarines and the nuclear weapons deployed on land/sea/air and also reconnaissance spacecraft. Proliferation of conventional nuclear and biological weapons was at a peak owing to the competition between the superpowers. The next phase, in a new form, has just started from 1990 onwards. The world has graduated into economic warfare. The means used is control of market forces through high technology. The participating nations, apart from the USA, are Japan, the UK, France, Germany, certain South-East Asian countries and a few others. The driving force is the generation of wealth with certain types of economic doctrine. The urgent issue we need to adedress collectively as a nation is, how do we handle the tactics of economic and military dominance in this new form coming from the backdoor? Today technology is the main driver of economic development at the national level. Therefore, we have to develop indigenous technologies to enhance our competitive edge and to generate national wealth in all segments of economy. Therefore, the need of the hour is: arm India with technology. 51. Why do certain countries use selective tactics against developing countries? (1) To help developing countries gain military and economic independence (2) To help developing countries govern themselves and be economically independent (3) To ally with developing countries to dominate over other developed countries (4) To curtail their domination over developing countries (5) None of the above 52. Which are the issues of great concern that India is facing at present, according to the author of the passage? (A) The supply of high-tech weaponry by other countries to India's neighbours who are likely to use the same against India. (B) Other countries secretly helping India's neighbours to strengthen their nuclear might. (C) Obstruction of India's genuine efforts to develop its own nuclear technology. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) All of these 53. Enforcement of technology denial regimes by developed countries implies which of the following? (1) Dominance of developing countries over developed ones (2) Exploitation of developing nations by the mightier ones (3) Targeting of developed countries by developing countries (4) Sympathising with underprivileged countries (5) None of the above 54. The striking difference in warfare before and after 1990 was the shift from (1) guns, tanks, etc. to nuclear weapons (2) ships and submarines to spacecrafts (3) weaponry to economic warfare (4) economic forces to high technologydriven warfare (5) None of the above Ph: , (M)

8 55. Why, according to the author, is it necessary to examine how weaponry and warfare have evolved? (A) To understand their implications for us. (B) To learn the rapid changes that have taken place in weaponry and warfare. (C) To master them and enable us to attack our enemies. (1) A, B and C (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) A and C 56. According to the author, the most effective way to counter our major problems is to (A) develop indigenous technologies (B) compete with other countries in their warring tactics (C) generate national wealth in all segments of economy (1) A, B and C (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) A and C Directions (57 and 58): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 57. RECONNAISSANCE (1) Investigation (2) Reserved (3) Recognizable (4) Remedy (5) Attack 58. PROLIFERATION (1) Explosion (2) Devastation (3) Discomfiture (4) Abundance (5) Extraction Directions (59 and 60): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 59. INDIGENOUS (1) Local (2) Domestic (3) Abroad (4) Foreign (5) Exported 60. DOMINANCE (1) Aggression (2) Submission (3) Assertion (4) Ignorance (5) Lethargy Directions (61-65): Rearrange the following sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below them. The paragraph starts with the sentence A and ends with the sentence G. Both A and G are fixed on their position. A. An earthquake rocked Gujarat on January 26, It is estimated that over 13,000 people lost their lives having been buried under the debris of buildings that collapsed. B. Heat is being constantly produced in the interior of the earth. This heat produces convection currents in the molten rocks. C. As the currents rise, they cause fractures in the crust. The crust is divided into various segments. D. These segments have been moving away from each other and also coming together. As the plates come together they collide. E. The earthquake had its epicenter at a place near Bhuj. Maximum damage was caused at places in the immediate surroundings of the epicenter. F. An earthquake is caused by the shaking of the earth's crust. G. The stress caused by collision leads to shaking of the earth's crust. We call this shaking and trembling of the earth's surface as an earthquake. 61. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence? (1) B (2) D (3) C (4) F (5) E 62. Which of the follwing should be the FOURTH sentence? (1) C (2) E (3) F (4) D (5) B 63. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence? (1) B (2) C (3) E (4) D (5) F 64. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence? (1) F (2) B (3) E (4) C (5) D 65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence? (1) C (2) D (3) B (4) F (5) E Directions (66-70): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5). 66. We have sought (1)/ clearance in (2)/ additional expenditure incurred (3)/ during the project. (4)/ No error. (5) 67. The Reserve Bank of India's decision (1)/ to waive ATM charges (2)/ have put banks (3)/ in a difficult position. (4)/ No error. (5) Ph: , (M)

9 68. The government is planning to (1)/ sanction grants to pharmaceutical companies (2)/ for inventing new treatments for (3)/ diseases of malaria and tuberculosis. (4)/ No error. (5) 69. The Finance Minister view (1)/ is that the scheme will ensure (2)/ that millions of farmers will be (3)/ lifted out of poverty. (4)/ No error. (5) 70. The survey conducted reveals (1)/ that there is a lack (2)/ of adequate healthcare facilities (3)/ even in urban areas. (4)/ No error. (5) Directions (71-75): Each question given below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 71. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a last year and have not each other ever since. (1) fight, talked (2) argument, met (3) dispute, seen (4) quarrel, admired (5) difference, introduced 72. The workers, several of had complained about their low wages earlier have now to move to the court for the labour rights. (1) who, indicated (2) whom, decided (3) which, threatened (4) them, resolved (5) number, warmed 73. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government an apartment to each of them at rates. (1) demolished, fast (2) announced, less (3) provided, high (4) acquired, low (5) promised, subsidised 74. The organization was deeply by difficulties a decade ago, but the new CEO brought many changes in it and took it to a new high. (1) indebted, necessary (2) plagued, vital (3) coping, more (4) hurt, critical (5) shaken, inevitable 75. The Prime Minister who is in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very by the news of India winning the World Cup. (1) visiting, happy (2) residing, obliged (3) intruding, dejected (4) staying, pleased (5) resting, cheerful Directions (76-80): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 76. If the evidence bear out the charge, he may be sentenced to death. (1) bears out (2) bore out (3) was born out (4) has borne out (5) No correction required 77. He has to liaise direct with the police while writing the report. (1) liaised direct (2) to liaise directly (3) to liaising direct (4) to liaise directed (5) No correction required 78. The rise in unemployment is parallel by an increase in petty crime. (1) was parallel by (2) will be parallel by (3) is paralleled by (4) is paralleled with (5) No correction required 79. He has a chance redeem him after last week's mistake. (1) to redeem him (2) to redeem (3) redeem himself (4) to redeem himself (5) No correction required 80. We shall eat some now and save some for tomorrow. (1) now some and save some (2) now some and some save (3) some and save (4) some now or save some (5) No correction required Ph: , (M)

10 Directions (81-90): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case. Trust is a (81) relationship concept that needs clarification because researchers (82) disciplines have defined it in so many different ways. A typology of trust types would make it easier to (83) and communicate results and would be especially valuable if the types of trust related to one another. The typology should be interdisciplinary (84) many disciplines research e-commerce. This paper (85) a parsimonious interdisciplinary typology and relates trust constructs to e-commerce consumer actions defining both conceptual-level and operational-level trust constructs. Conceptuallevel constructs consist (86) disposition to trust (primarily from psychology) institution-based trust (from sociology) and trusting (87) and trusting intentions ( primarily from social psychology). Each construct is (88) into measurable sub-constructs, and the typology shows how trust constructs relate (89) already existing Internet relationship constructs. The effects of Web vendor interventions on consumer behaviours are posited to be (90) mediated by consumer trusting beliefs and trusting intentions in the e-vendor. 81. (1) vital (2) close (3) important (4) low (5) proximate 82. (1) along (2) around (3) across (4) above (5) over and above 83. (1) compose (2) compare (3) comparison (4) comparing (5) spare 84. (1) but (2) that (3) which (4) because (5) as if 85. (1) justifies (2) clarifies (3) denies (4) regards (5) registers 86. (1) in (2) of (3) for (4) with (5) by 87. (1) disbeliefs (2) beliefs (3) ways (4) means (5) measures 88. (1) decomposed (2) decomposing (3) deposed (4) divided (5) distributed 89. (1) with (2) in (3) by (4) of (5) to 90. (1) partially (2) legally (3) generally (4) illegally (5) gradually Ph: , (M)

11 la[;kred vfhk;ksx;rk (45 feuv) funsz'k (91-95): fueufyf[kr iz'uksa esas iz'ufpug (?) ds LFkku ij D;k vkuk pkfg,? ? = 196 (1) 24 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16 (5) ( ) ( ) =? (1) (2) 1.6 (3) 0.16 (4) 0.36 (5) dk 125%+ 350 dk 33336% =? (1) (2) (3) 2276 (4) (5) ? = 21 2 (1) 6400 (2) 4 (3) 64 (4) 16 (5) =? (1) (2) (3) (4) funsz'k (96-100): fueufyf[kr iz'uksa esa iz'ufpug (?) ds LFkku ij yxhkx D;k eku vkuk pkfg, \ (;FkkrF; eku dh x.kuk vko';d ugha) dk105.27% dk 11.80% =? dk 21.99% (1) 500 (2) 240 (3) 310 (4) 550 (5) dk 0.98% ? = 78 (1) 30 (2) 60 (3) 40 (4) 50 (5) ( )? = (1) 48 (2) 12 (3) 72 (4) 84 (5) ( ) =? (1) 884 (2) 346 (3) 252 (4) 424 (5) ? = (1) 1682 (2) 1024 (3) 1582 (4) 678 (5) 1884 funsz'k ( ): fueufyf[kr la[;k J`a[kyk esa iz'ufpug (\) ds LFkku ij D;k vkuk pkfg,\ ? (1) 1210 (2) 1451 (3) 1221 (4) 1441 (5) ? (1) 409 (2) 727 (3) 733 (4) 649 (5) ? (1) 285 (2) 245 (3) 225 (4) 235 (5) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 578 (5) funsz'k ( ): fueufyf[kr iz'uksa esa nks Lehdj.k I vksj II fn, x, gsaa vkidks nksuksa lehdj.k gy djus gsa vksj mùkj nhft,% 106. I. x 2 = 144 II. y 2 24y = 0 (1) x y (2) x y (3) x,oa y ds chp laca/ LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk (4) x < y (5) x > y 107. I. 5x 2 + 8x + 3 = 0 II. 3y 2 + 7y + 4 = 0 (1) x y (2) x y (3) x,oa y ds chp laca/ LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk (4) x < y (5) x > y 108. I. x 2 3x 88 = 0 II. y 2 + 8y 48 = 0 (1) x y (2) x y (3) x < y (4) x > y (3) x,oa y ds chp laca/ LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk 109. I. 2x x + 10 = 0 II. 3y y + 14 = 0 (1) x > y (2) x < y (3) x y (4) x y (5) x,oa y ds chp laca/ LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk 110. I. 12x 2 x 1 = 0 II. 20y 2 41y + 20 = 0 (1) x y (2) x > y (3) x,oa y ds chp laca/ LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk (4) x y (5) x < y Ph: , (M)

12 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (45 Minute) Directions (91-95): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given questions? ? = 196 (1) 24 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16 (5) ( ) ( ) =? (1) (2) 1.6 (3) 0.16 (4) 0.36 (5) % of % of 350 =? (1) (2) (3) 2276 (4) (5) ? = 21 2 (1) 6400 (2) 4 (3) 64 (4) 16 (5) =? (1) (2) (3) (4) Directions (96-100): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) % of % of = 21.99% of? (1) 500 (2) 240 (3) 310 (4) 550 (5) % of ? = 78 (1) 30 (2) 60 (3) 40 (4) 50 (5) ( )? = (1) 48 (2) 12 (3) 72 (4) 84 (5) ( ) =? (1) 884 (2) 346 (3) 252 (4) 424 (5) ? = (1) 1682 (2) 1024 (3) 1582 (4) 678 (5) 1884 Directions ( ): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series? ? (1) 1210 (2) 1451 (3) 1221 (4) 1441 (5) ? (1) 409 (2) 727 (3) 733 (4) 649 (5) ? (1) 285 (2) 245 (3) 225 (4) 235 (5) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 578 (5) Directions ( ): In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and select the appropriate option I. x 2 = 144 II. y 2 24y = 0 (1) x y (2) x y (3) relationship between x and y cannot be determined (4) x < y (5) x > y 107. I. 5x 2 + 8x + 3 = 0 II. 3y 2 + 7y + 4 = 0 (1) x y (2) x y (3) relationship between x and y cannot be determined (4) x < y (5) x > y 108. I. x 2 3x 88 = 0 II. y 2 + 8y 48 = 0 (1) x y (2) x y (3) x < y (4) x > y (5) relationship between x and y cannot be determined 109. I. 2x x + 10 = 0 II. 3y y + 14 = 0 (1) x > y (2) x < y (3) x y (4) x y (5) relationship between x and y cannot be determined 110. I. 12x 2 x 1 = 0 II. 20y 2 41y + 20 = 0 (1) x y (2) x > y (3) relationship between x and y cannot be determined (4) x y (5) x < y Ph: , (M)

13 111. v:.k us pkj o"kz dh vof/ ds fy, /u dh,d jkf'k dk lk/kj.k C;kt dh,d nj ij fuos'k fd;ka ;fn mlus blh jkf'k dk Ng o"kz dh vof/ ds fy, fuos'k fd;k gksrk rks mlds }kjk vftzr C;kt dh dqy jkf'k igys vftzr C;kt dh jkf'k ls ipkl izfr'kr vf/d gksrha izfr'kr izfr o"kz C;kt dh nj D;k Fkh \ (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk 112.,d taxy esa dqn rksrs vksj dqn ck?k gsaa ;fn taxy esa tkuojksa ds dqy 858 flj gsa vksj dqy 1,846 Vkaxsa gsa] rks taxy esa rksrksa dh la[;k fdruh gs\ (1) 845 (2) 833 (3) 800 (4) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk 113.,d oxz dk ifjeki] 8 lseh yackbz vksj 7 lseh pksm+kbz okys vk;r ds ifjeki ds nqxus ds cjkcj gsa ml v/zo`ùk dh ifjf/ fdruh gksxh ftldk O;kl oxz dh,d Hkqtk ds cjkcj gs \ (nks n'keyo vadksa rd iw.kkz afdr) (1) lseh (2) lseh (3) lseh (4) lseh 114. rhu Øfed fo"ke la[;kvksa vksj rhu Øfed le la[;kvksa dk ;ksx 231 gsa lkfk gh lcls NksVh fo"ke la[;k lcls NksVh le la[;k ls 11 de gsa lcls cm+h fo"ke la[;k vksj lcls cm+h le la[;k dk ;ksx fdruk gs \ (1) 82 (2) 83 (3) 74 (4) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk ym+fd;ka,d dke 13 fnu esa] ;gh dke 6 ym+ds 12 fnu esa vksj 9 iq#"k 9 fnu esa vksj 6 efgyk,a 14 fnu esa dj ldrh gs lcls n{k dksu gs \ (1) ym+ds (2) ym+fd;ka (3) efgyk,a (4) iq#"k (5) iq#"k o efgyk,a nksuksa 116.,d Ldwy ds 800 fo kffkz;ksa es a ls 12% ym+fd;ka gs aa izr;sd ym+ds dh ekfld iqhl ` 220 gs vksj izr;sd ym+dh dh ekfld iqhl ym+ds ls 25% de gsa ym+fd;ksa vksj ym+ds nksuksa dh feydj dqy iqhl fdruh gs\ (1) ` 1,72,020 (2) ` 1,80,780 (3) ` 1,70,720 (4) ` 1,80, firk dh vk;q iq=k ls 30 o"kz vf/d gsa nl o"kz ckn firk dh vk;q ml le; iq=k dh vk;q ls frxquh gksxha o"kksza esa iq=k dh orzeku vk;q fdruh gs\ (1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk 118. Vªd] dkj vksj Vªsu dh xfr ds chp Øe'k% 3 : 8 : 12 dk vuqikr gsa dkj,d leku xfr ls py jgh gs vksj mlus 13?kaVs esa fdeh dh nwjh r; dh gsa Vªd o Vªsu nksuks a dh feykdj vkslr xfr fdruh gs \ (1) 75 fdeh/?kavk (2) 60 fdeh/?kavk (3) 48 fdeh/?kavk (4) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk 119. fdlh d{kk esa 13 ym+fd;ksa dh vkslr Å pkbz lseh gsa mlh d{kk esa 11 ym+dksa dh vkslr Å pkbz lseh gsa d{kk esa dsoy 24 Nk=k gs aa d{kk ds Nk=kksa dh lexz vkslr Å pkbz (lseh esa) D;k gs \ (1) (2) 156 (3) 153 (4) 159 (5) ,d O;kikjh ds ikl 600 fdxzk pkoy gs] bldh,d fuf'pr ek=kk og 15% ykhk ij,oa 'ks"k ek=kk 20% dh gkfu ij csprk gsa laiw.kz ysu&nsu esa mls lexzr% 6% dh gkfu gqbza 20% dh gkfu ij csps x, pkoy dh ek=kk D;k gs? (1) 250 fdxzk (2) 320 fdxzk (3) 420 fdxzk (4) 360 fdxzk (5) 480 fdxzk Ph: , (M)

14 111. Arun invested a sum of money at a certain rate of simple interest for a period of four years. Had he invested the same sum for a period of six years, the total interest earned by him would have been fifty per cent more than the earlier interest amount. What was the rate of interest per cent per annum? (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) Cannot be determined 112. There are some parrots and some tigers in a forest. If the total number of animal heads in the forest is 858 and the total number of animal legs is 1,846, what is the number of parrots in the forest? (1) 845 (2) 833 (3) 800 (4) Cannot be determined 113. The perimeter of a square is equal to twice the perimeter of a rectangle of length 8 cm and breadth 7 cm. What is the circumference of a semicircle whose diameter is equal to the side of the square? (Rounded off to two decimal place) (1) cm (2) cm (3) cm (4) cm 114. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers and three consecutive even numbers together is 231. Also, the smallest odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest odd number and the largest even number? (1) 82 (2) 83 (3) 74 (4) Cannot be determined 115. Seven girls can do a piece of work in 13 days, six boys can do the same piece of work in 12 days, nine men can do the same piece of work in 9 days and six women can do the same piece of work in 14 days. Who are the most efficient? (1) Boys (2) Girls (3) Women (4) Men (5) Both men and women 116. In a school, there are 800 students out of whom 12 per cent are girls. Each boy's monthly fee is ` 220 and each girl's monthly fee is 25 per cent less than that of a boy. What is the total monthly fee of all the girls and boys together? (1) ` 1,72,020 (2) ` 1,80,780 (3) ` 1,70,720 (4) ` 1,80, The age of the father is 30 years more than the son's age. Ten years hence, the father's age will become three times the son's age that time. What is the son's present age in years? (1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Five (4) Cannot be determined 118. The ratio between the speed of a truck, car and train is 3 : 8 : 12. The car moved uniformly and covered a distance of 1040 km in 13 hours. What is the average speed of the truck and the train together? (1) 75 km/hr (2) 60 km/hr (3) 48 km/hr (4) Cannot be determined 119. The average height of 13 girls in a class is cms. The average height of 11 boys in the class is cms. There are only 24 students in the class. What is the overall average height (in cms) of all the students together in the class? (1) (2) 156 (3) 153 (4) 159 (5) A trader has 600 kg of rice, a part of which he sells at 15% profit and the remaining quantity at 20% loss. On the whole, he incurs an overall loss of 6%. What is the quantity of rice he sold at 20% loss? (1) 250 kg (2) 320 kg (3) 420 kg (4) 360 kg (5) 480 kg Ph: , (M)

15 funsz'k ( ): bu iz'uksa dk mùkj nsus ds fy, lkj.kh dks è;ku ls if<+,: MBA ds fofhkuu fo"k;ksa esa fofhkuu Nk=kksa dks izkir vadksa dk izfr'kr Nk=k fo"k; (vf/dre vad) vuq"dk vfpzr vizu xfozrk xquhr iz.khrk 121. lhkh fo"k;ksa esa feykdj vuq"dk dks fdrus vad feys \ (1) 369 (2) 463 (3) 558 (4) xfozrk dks czkam izca/u esa izkir vad vfpzr dks mlh fo"k; esa izkir vadks a dk fdrus izfr'kr gs\ (n'keyo ds ckn nks vadksa rd iw.kkz afdr) (1) (2) (3) (4) deisuls'ku izca/u esa lhkh Nk=kksa dks feykdj fdrus vkslr vad feys \ (1) 116 (2) 120 (3) 123 (4) lhkh fo"k;ksa dks feykdj lokzf/d dqy vad fdls feys gsa\ (1) vfpzr (2) xquhr (3) iz.khrk (4) xfozrk (5) viz.k 125.,d ls vf/d fo"k; esa lokzf/d vad fdrus Nk=kksa dks feys gsa \ (1) rhu (2) nks (3),d (4) dksbz ugha funsz'k ( ): uhps fn, x, xzkiq dk vè;;u dj uhps fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nhft,:,d fo'ofo ky; esa fn, x, ikap o"kksza ds nksjku rhu vyx&vyx fo'ks"kkrkvksa dks pquus okyh fo kffkz;ksa dh la[;k (gtkjksa esa) fgunh vaxzsth xf.kr o"kz Ph: , (M)

16 Directions ( ): Study the following table carefully to answer the given questions that follows: Percentage of Marks Obtained by Different Students in Different Subjects of MBA Students SUBJECTS (Maximum Marks) Anushka Archit Arpan Garvita Gunita Pranita 121. How many marks did Anushka get in all the subjects together? (1) 369 (2) 463 (3) 558 (4) The marks obtained by Garvita in Brand Management is what percent of the marks obtained by Archit in the same subject? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) (2) (3) (4) What is the average marks obtained by all students t ogether in Compensation Management? (1) 116 (2) 120 (3) 123 (4) Who has scored the highest total marks in all the subjects together? (1) Archit (2) Gunit (3) Pranita (4) Garvita (5) Arpan 125. How many students have scored the highest marks in more than one subject? (1) three (2) two (3) one (4) none Directions ( ): Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow: No. of students (in thousand) who opted for three different specializations during the given five years in university Hindi English Mathematics YEARS Ph: , (M)

17 a a Centres at: MUKHERJEE NAGAR MUNIRKA UTTAM NAGAR DILSHAD GARDEN ROHINI BADARPUR JAIPUR GURGAON LAXMI NAGAR 126. o"kz 2009 esa fn, x, rhu fo"k;ksa dks pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh dqy la[;k esa ls, 38% ym+fd;ka FkhA blh o"kz xf.kr pquus okys ym+ds fdrus Fks? (1) 1322 (2) 1332 (3) 1312 (4) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk 127. o"kz 2007 esa fo'ofo ky; esa fo kffkz;ksa dh dqy la[;k gs, rks fn, x, rhu fo"k;ksa dks pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh dqy la[;k dk yxhkx fdruk izfr'kr gs? (1) 19 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 5 (5) o"kz 2006, 2007 vksj 2009 esa feykdj fgunh vksj xf.kr pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh dqy la[;k D;k gs? (1) (2) (3) (4) o"kz 2005 vksj 2008 esa feykdj xf.kr pquus okys fo kffkz;ks dh dqy la[;k mlh lky esa rhuksa fo"k;ksa dks feykdj pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh dqy la[;k dk yxhkx fdruk izfr'kr gs? (1) 38 (2) 28 (3) 42 (4) 32 (5) o"kz 2006 vksj 2008 esa feydj vaxz sth pquus okys fo kffkz;ks dh la[;k vksj o"kz 2005 vksj 2009 esa feydj fgunh pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh la[;k ds chp Øe'k% vuqikr D;k gs? (1) 11 : 5 (2) 12 : 7 (3) 11 : 7 (4) 12 : 5 funsz'k ( ): fueufyf[kr ikbz&pkvz esa fdlh fo ky; esa fhkuu lkald`frd fø;kdykiksa esa 'kkfey Nk=kksa dk izfr'kr fohkktu n'kkz;k x;k gsa bl ikbz&pkvz dk lko/kuhiwozd vè;;u dj fn, x, iz'uksa dk mùkj nhft,: fo kffkz;ksa dh dqy la[;k = % u`r; 38% laxhr [ksydwn 8% 10% djkvs 7% fødsv 32% isafvax 131. u`r; pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh dqy la[;k D;k gs? (1) 648 (2) 684 (3) 864 (4) isafvax pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh la[;k,oa djkvs pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh la[;k ds chp Øe'k% vuqikr gs? (1) 3 : 7 (2) 5 : 16 (3) 16 : 5 (4) 5 : laxhr pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh la[;k [skydwn pquus okys fo kffkz;ksa dh la[;k ls fdruk izfr'kr vf/d gs? (1) 30 (2) 55 (3) 45 (4) fdrus fo kffkz;ksa us fødsv,oa isafvax dk p;u fd;k? (1) 702 (2) 602 (3) 660 (4) fødsv,oa u`r; pquus okys Nk=kksa dh la[;k isfvax,oa laxhr pquus okys Nk=kksa dh la[;k ls fdruk izfr'kr vf/d gs? (1) 14.5 (2) 12.5 (3) 16.5 (4) 21.5 funsz'k ( ): fueufyf[kr iz'uksa dk mùkj nsus ds fy, bl ikbz pkvz dk è;kuiwozd vè;;u dhft,:,d Ldwy esa vyx&vyx xfrfof/;ksa esa HkrhZ fo kffkz;ksa dh dqy la[;k = 3000 xk;u 21% rsjkdh 16% fp=kdkjh 14% ØkÝV 25% u`r; 24% Ph: , (M)

18 126. Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects, in the year 2009, 38% were girls. How many boys opted for Mathematics in the same year? (1) 1322 (2) 1332 (3) 1312 (4) Can't be determined 127. If the total number of students in the university in the year 2007 was , the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects was approximately what percent of the total students? (1) 19 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 5 (5) What is the total number of students who opted for Hindi and Mathematics in the years 2006, 2007 and 2009 together? (1) (2) (3) (4) The total number of students who opted for Mathematics in the years 2005 and 2008 together is approximately what percent of the total numbers of students who opted for all three subjects in the same years? (1) 38 (2) 28 (3) 42 (4) 32 (5) What is the ratio of the number of students who opted for English in the years 2006 and 2008 together to the number of students who opted for Hindi in the year 2005 and 2009 together? (1) 11 : 5 (2) 12 : 7 (3) 11 : 7 (4) 12 : 5 Directions ( ): In the following pie-chart percent of students enrolled in different cultural activities of a school has been shown. You are required to study the pie-chart carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of students = % Dance 5% Music Sports 8% 10% Karate 7% Cricket 32% Painting 131. What is the number of students who opted for dancing? (1) 648 (2) 684 (3) 864 (4) What is the respective ratio between the number of students who opted for painting and that who opted for Karate? (1) 3 : 7 (2) 5 : 16 (3) 16 : 5 (4) 5 : By what percent is the number of candidates who opted for music more than those who opted for sports? (1) 30 (2) 55 (3) 45 (4) How many students have opted for cricket and painting together? (1) 702 (2) 602 (3) 660 (4) By what percent is the number of students who opted for cricket and dancing together more than those who opted for painting and music together? (1) 14.5 (2) 12.5 (3) 16.5 (4) 21.5 Directions ( ): Study the pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions: Percentage of students enrolled in different activities in a school Total number of students = 3000 Swimming 16% Singing 21% Drawing 14% Craft 25% Dancing 24% Ph: , (M)

19 dqy fo kffkz;ksa esa ls fofo/ xfrfof/;ksa esa HkrhZ ym+fd;ksa ds izfr'kr dk czsd&vi ym+fd;ksa dh dqy la[;k = rsjkdh vksj fp=kdkjh esa feydj HkrhZ ym+fd;ksa dh dqy la[;k fdruh gs? (1) 480 (2) 525 xk;u 28% rsjkdh 14% ØkWÝV 22% u`r; 20% (3) 505 (4) u`r; esa Hkrh gqbz ym+fd;ksa dh la[;k Ldwy ds dqy fo kffkz;ksa dh la[;k dk fdruk izfr'kr gs? (n'keyo ds ckn nks vadksa rd iw.kkz afdr) fp=kdkjh 16% 136. Ldwy esa ym+dksa dk yxhkx izfr'kr D;k gs? (1) 34 (2) 56 (3) 28 (4) 50 (5) xk;u vksj ØkÝV esa feydj dqy fdrus ym+ds HkrhZ gqbz gsa? (1) 505 (2) 610 (3) 485 (4) 420 (1) (2) (3) (4) rsjkdh ds fy, HkrhZ ym+fd;ksa dh la[;k dk rsjkdh ds fy, HkrhZ ym+dksa dh la[;k ls Øe'k% D;k vuqikr gs? (1) 47 : 49 (2) 23 : 29 (3) 29 : 23 (4) 49 : 47 Ph: , (M)

20 Percentage break-up of girls enrolled in these activities out of the total students Total number of girls = What is the total number of girls enrolled in Swimming and Drawing together? Swimming 14% Craft 22% (1) 480 (2) 525 (3) 505 (4) 495 Singing 28% Dancing 20% 139. The number of girls enrolled in Dancing form what percent of the total number of students in the school? (round off to two Drawing 16% 136. What is the approximate percentage of boys in the school? (1) 34 (2) 56 (3) 28 (4) 50 (5) How many boys are enrolled in Singing and Craft together? (1) 505 (2) 610 (3) 485 (4) 420 digits after decimal) (1) (2) (3) (4) What is the ratio of the number of girls enrolled in Swimming to the number of boys enrolled in Swimming? (1) 47 : 49 (2) 23 : 29 (3) 29 : 23 (4) 49 : 47 Ph: , (M)

21 141. ;fn vfhko;fdr 'V < E > B = H > N > P' fuf'pr :i ls lr; gs rks fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk dfku fuf'pr :i ls lr; gs? (1) P < B (2) H < V (3) N > V (4) E > N (5) E > P funsz'k ( ): fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dk lko/kuhiwozd vè;;u dj uhps fn, x, iz'uksa ds mrrj nhft,:,d fuf'pr dksm Hkk"kk esa, 'few organic farming techniques' dks 'li gs da cr' fy[kk tkrk gs, 'fertilizer products few available' dks 'fo pz nb gs' fy[kk tkrk gs, 'organic waste into fertilizer' dks 'nb cr pt mk' vksj 'disposal of farming waste' dks 'hu mk li yu' fy[kk tkrk gsa (lhkh dksm dsoy nks v{kjh; gsaa) 142. nh x;h dksm Hkk"kk esa 'few waste' dk dksm D;k gksxk? (1) mk gs (2) gs li (3) pt da (4) da mk (5) fn, x, fodyiksa ds vykok 143. nh x;h dksm Hkk"kk esa 'organic' dk dksm D;k gksxk? (1) is (2) cr (3) da (4) pt (5) fn, x, fodyiksa ds vykok 144. nh x;h dksm Hkk"kk esa dksm 'yu' dk vfkz D;k gksxk? (1) farming (2) techniques (3) ;k rks 'of' ;k 'disposal' (4) waste (5) ;k rks 'into' ;k 'few' 145. ;fn nh x;h dksm Hkk"kk esa 'waste management techiques' dks 'ax da mk' fy[kk tkrk gs] rks 'farming fertiler management' dk dksm D;k gksxk? (1) ax nb cr (2) li ax pt (3) nb li ax (4) gs li nb (5) fn, x, fodyiksa ds vykok 146. nh x;h dksm Hkk"kk esa 'available' dk dksm D;k gksxk? (1) ;k rks 'pz' ;k 'fo' (2) ;k rks 'nb' ;k 'mk' (3) li (4) hu (5) fn, x, fodyiksa ds vykok 147. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&ls izrhdksa dks fn, x, vfhko;fdr esa [kkyh LFkku ij j[kus ij (ck,a ls nk,a mlh Øe esa) 'W > R' rfkk 'E > S' nksuksa dfku fuf'pr :i ls lr; gks tk,axs? W_E_A_R_S (1) >, =, >, > (2) >, >, =, > (3) <, >, = > (4) <, =, >, > (5) >, <, >, = rdz'kfdr ijh{k.k $ dei;wvj (45 feuv) funsz'k ( ): fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dk lko/kuhiwozd vè;;udj uhps fn, x, iz'uksa ds mrrj nhft,: vkb O;fDr K, L, M, N, O, P, Q rfkk R,d vkb eaftyh bekjr ds vyx&vyx eaftyksa ij jgrs gsa ijurq vko';d ugha gs fd blh Øe esa aa bekjr dh lcls fupyh eafty dks Øekad,d fn;k x;k gs] mlds Bhd mqijh eafty dks Øekad nks rfkk blh izdkj vu; eafty dks Hkh Øekad fn;k x;k gs rfkk lcls mqijh eafty dks Øekad vkb fn;k x;k gsa muesa ls izr;sd dks vyx&vyx lqijghjks Hkh ilan gs ;Fkk] csvesu] lqijesu] dsivu vesfjdk] Bksj] gyd] oksyofju] uksok rfkk vk;jesu] ijurq vko';d ugha gs fd blh Øe esaa ftl O;fDr dks Bksj ilan gs og,d le Øekad okyh eafty ij jgrk gsa ftl O;fDr dks Bksj ilan gs rfkk M ds chp dsoy rhu O;fDr jgrs gsaa M rfkk N ds chp dsoy nks O;fDr jgrs gsaa lcls fupyh eafty ij N ugha jgrk gsa N rfkk gyd dks ilan djus okys O;fDr ds chp esa dsoy rhu O;fDr jgrs gsaa K ds Bhd mqij O jgrk gsa le Øekad okyh eafty ij O jgrk gsa K dks gyd ialn ugha gsa K u rks rhu u gh ikap Øekad okyh eafty ij jgrk gsa K rfkk uksok dks ilan djus okys O;fDr ds chp dsoy nks O;fDr jgrs gsaa uksok rfkk vk;juesu dks ilan djus okys O;fDr;ksa ds chp esa dsoy,d O;fDr jgrk gsa uksok dks ialn djus okys O;fDr ds uhps vk;juesu dks ilan djus okyk O;fDr jgrk gsa Q ds Bhd mqij L jgrk gsa Q rfkk dsivu vesfjdk dks ilan djus okys O;fDr ds chp esa dsoy,d O;fDr jgrk gsa csvesu dks ilan djus okys O;fDr ds Bhd mqij oksyofju dks ilan djus okyk O;fDr jgrk gsa P dks Bksj ilan ugha gsa K dks lqijesu ilan ugha gsa 148. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk ;qxe N ds Bhd mqij rfkk Bhd uhps jgus okys O;fDr;ksa dks fu:fir djrk gs? (1) R, L (2) fn, x, fodyiksa ds vykok (3) L, M (4) K, Q (5) R, Q 149. nh x;h O;oLFkk ds vuqlkj fueufyf[kr ikap eas ls,d pkj,d fuf'pr izdkj ls,d leku gsa rfkk os viuk,d lewg cukrs gsaa fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk,d bl lewg esa 'kkfey ugha gksrk gs? (1) K-eafty Øekad ikap (2) Q-eafty Øekad Ng (3) L-eafty Øekad nks (4) N-eafty Øekad lkr (5) R-eafty Øekad vkb Ph: , (M)

22 REASONING ABILITY + COMPUTER 141. Which of the given statements will be definitely true if the expression 'V < E > B = H > N > P' is definitely true? (1) P < B (2) H < V (3) N > V (4) E > N (5) E > P Directions ( ): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions: In a certain code language, 'few organic farming techniques' is written as 'li gs da cr', 'fertilizer products few available' is written as 'fo pz nb gs', 'organic waste into fertilizer' is written as 'nb cr pt mk' and 'disposal of farming waste' is written as 'hu mk li yu'. (All codes are two-letter codes only.) 142. What will be the code for 'few waste' in the given code language? (1) mk gs (2) gs li (3) pt da (4) da mk (5) other than those given as options 143. What is the code for 'organic' in the given code language? (1) is (2) cr (3) da (4) pt (5) other than those given as options 144. In the given code language, what does the code 'yu' stand for? (1) farming (2) techniques (3) Either 'of' or 'disposal' (4) waste (5) Either 'into' or 'few' 145. If 'waste management techiques' is coded as 'ax da mk' in the given code language, then how will 'farming fertilizer management' be coded as? (1) ax nb cr (2) li ax pt (3) nb li ax (4) gs li nb (5) other than those given as options 146. What is the code for 'available' in the given code langauge? (1) Either 'pz' or 'fo' (2) Either 'nb' or 'mk' (3) li (4) hu (5) other than those given as options 147. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both 'W > R' and 'E > S' definitely hold true? W_E_A_R_S (1) >, =, >, > (2) >, >, =, > (3) <, >, = > (4) <, =, >, > (5) >, <, >, = (45 Minute) Directions ( ): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Each of them also likes a different superhero, namely Batman, Superman, Captain America, Thor, Hulk, Wolverine, Nova and Ironman, but not necessarily in the same order. The one who likes Thor lives on an evennumbered floor. Only three people live between the one who likes Thor and M. Only two people live between M and N. N does not live on the lowermost floor. Only three people live between N and the one who likes Hulk. O lives immediately above K. O lives on an even-numbered floor. K does not like Hulk. K lives neither on the floor numbered three nor on five. Only two people live between K and the one who likes Nova. Only one person lives between the one who likes Nova and Ironman. The one who likes Ironman lives below the one who likes Nova. L lives immediately above Q. Only one person lives between Q and the one who likes Captain America. The one who likes Wolverine lives immediately above the one who likes Batman. P does not like Thor. K does not like Superman Which of the following pairs represent those who live immediately above and immediately below N? (1) R, L (2) other than those given as options (3) L, M (4) K, Q (5) R, Q 149. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group? (1) K-Floor numbered five (2) Q-Floor numbered six (3) L-Floor numbered two (4) N-Floor numbered seven (5) R-Floor numbered eight Ph: , (M)

23 150. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk lqijghjks R dks ilan gs? (1) fn, x, fodyiksa ds vykok (2) lqijesu (3) uksok (4) Bksj (5) csvesu 151. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk lqijghjks P dks ialn gs? (1) vk;jesu (2) oksyofju (3) csvesu (4) dsivu vesfjdk (5) fn, x, fodyiksa ds vykok 152. fueufyf[kr fdl eafty la[;k ij N jgrk gs? (1) ikap (2) rhu (3) lkr (4),d (5) fn, x, fodyiksa ds vykok 153. nh x;h O;oLFkk ds vuqlkj,d fuf'pr izdkj ls P lacafèkr gs uksok ls rfkk N lacaf/r gs oksyofju lsa mlh izdkj fueufyf[kr esa ls fdlls M lacaf/r gs? (1) lqijesu (2) csvesu (3) dsivu vesfjdk (4) Bksj (5) gyd funsz'k ( ): fueufyf[kr izr;sd iz'u esa fofhkuu rroksa ds chp laca/ dfkuksa esa fn[kk;k x;k gs rfkk mlds ckn nks fu"d"kz I vksj II fn, x, gsaa dfkuksa ij vk/kfjr fu"d"kksza dks if<+, rfkk mi;qdr mùkj dk p;u dhft,a mùkj nhft, (1) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kz I lr; gsa (2) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kz II lr; gsa (3) ;fn ;k rks fu"d"kz I ;k II lr; gsaa (4) ;fn u rks fu"d"kz I u gh II lr; gsaa (5) ;fn fu"d"kz I vksj II lr; gsaa 154. dfku: F = A < L < C > O > N; Y > L; Q > C fu"d"kz: I. Y < N II. Q > F 155. dfku: R = E < Q > B; S > Q fu"d"kz: I. S < E II. B < S 156. dfku: J > K > L; A > K < P fu"d"kz: I. L < A II. P > J funsz'k ( ): uhps fn, x, izr;sd iz'u esa rhu dfku rfkk mlds ckn nks fu"d"kz I vksj II fn, x, gsaa vkidks fn, x, dfkuksa dks lr; ekuuk gs] Hkys gh os lozkkr rf;ksa ls fhkuu izrhr gksrs gksa rfkk ;g r; dhft, fd fn, x, fu"d"kksza esa ls dksu&lk@ls dfkuksa dk rdzlaxr <ax ls vuqlj.k djrk gs@djrs gsa] Hkys gh lozkkr rf; dqn Hkh gksaa mùkj nhft, (1) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kz I vuqlj.k djrk gsa (2) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kz II vuqlj.k djrk gsa (3) ;fn ;k rks fu"d"kz I ;k II vuqlj.k djrk gsa (4) ;fn u rks fu"d"kz I u gh II vuqlj.k djrk gsa (5) ;fn fu"d"kz I vksj II nksuksa gh vuqlj.k djrs gsaa 157. dfku: dqn vuqikr izfr'kr gsa lhkh izfr'kr fhkuu gsaa dksbz fhkuu vuqhkkx ugha gsa fu"d"kz: I. dksbz vuqhkkx izfr'kr ugha gsa II. lhkh vuqikrksa ds fhkuu gksus dh lahkkouk gsa 158. dfku: lhkh /krq,a IykfLVd gsaa lhkh IykfLVd v;ld gsaa dqn v;ld ydm+h gsaa fu"d"kz: I. lhkh ydfm+;ksa ds /krq gksus dh lahkkouk gsa II. dksbz v;ld /krq ugha gsa 159. dfku: dqn vuqikr izfr'kr gsaa lhkh izfr'kr fhkuu gsaa dksbz fhkuu vuqhkkx ugha gsa fu"d"kz: I. lhkh vuqhkkxksa ds vuqikr gksus dh lahkkouk gsa II. de&ls&de dqn fhkuu vuqikr gsaa 160. dfku: lhkh /krq,a IykfLVd gsaa lhkh IykfLVd v;ld gsa dqn v;ld ydm+h gsaa fu"d"kz: I. de&ls&de /krq,a ydm+h gsaa II. lhkh IykfLVd ds ydm+h gksus dh lahkkouk gsa funsz'k ( ): fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dk lko/kuhiwozd vè;;udj uhps fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nhft,: S, B dh cgu gsa K, B dk HkkbZ gsa K, L dk iq=k gsa L dk fookg Y ds lkfk gqvk gsa Y, J dh iq=kh gsa Y dh dsoy,d iq=kh gsa J dk fookg C ds lkfk gqvk gsa K, D dk HkkbZ gsa D dk fookg T ds lkfk gqvk gsa 161. ;fn P, C dk HkkbZ gs, rks J fdl izdkj P ls lacaf/r gs? (1) HkkbZ (2) dftu (3) cgu (4) vady (5) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk 162. T fdl izdkj S ls lacaf/r gs? (1) thtk@lkyk (2) dftu (3) lkyh@uun (4) cgu (5) HkkbZ 163. ;fn Z, T dh iq=kh gs, rks B fdl izdkj Z ls lacaf/r gs? (1) vady (2) firk (3) vkav (4) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk (5) ekrk Ph: , (M)

24 150. Which of the following superheroes does R like? (1) other than those given as options (2) Superman (3) Nova (4) Thor (5) Batman 151. Which of the following superheroes does P like? (1) Ironman (2) Wolverine (3) Batman (4) Captain America (5) other than those given as options 152. N lives on which of the following floor numbers? (1) Five (2) Three (3) Seven (4) One (5) other than those given as options 153. As per the given arrangement, P is related to Nova and N is related to Wolverine in a certain way. To which of the following is M related to in the same way? (1) Superman (2) Batman (3) Captain America(4) Thor (5) Hulk Directions ( ): In the given questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the given conclusions I and II stands definitely true and give you answer accordingly. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. (2) if only conclusion II is true. (3) if either conclusion I or II is true. (4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. (5) if both conclusion I and II are true Statements: F = A < L < C > O > N; Y > L; Q > C Conclusions: I. Y < N II. Q > F 155. Statements: R = E < Q > B; S > Q Conclusions: I. S < E II. B < S 156. Statements: J > K > L; A > K < P Conclusions: I. L < A II. P < J Directions ( ): In each question below three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to taken the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusions I follows. (2) if only conclusions II follows. (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. (5) if both conclusions I and II follows Statements: Some ratios are percent. All percent are fractions. No fraction is a section. Conclusions: I. No section is a percent. II. All ratios being fraction is a possibility Statements: All metals are plastics. All plastics are ores. Some ores are woods. Conclusions: I. All woods being metals is a possibility. II. No ore is a metal Statements: Some ratios are percent. All percent are fractions. No fraction is a section. Conclusions: I. All sections being ratios is a possibility. II. At loast some fractions are ratios Statements: All metals are plastics. All plastics are ores. Some ores are woods. Conclusions: I. Atleast some metals are woods. II. All plastics being wood is a possibility. Directions ( ): Study the following information and answer the given questions: S is a sister of B. K is brother of B. K is son of L. L is married to Y. Y is daughter of J. Y has only one daughter. J is married to C. K is brother of D. D is married to T If P is brother of C, then how is J related to P? (1) Brother (2) Cousin (3) Sister (4) Uncle (5) Can't be determined 162. How is T related to S? (1) Brother-in-law(2) Cousin (3) Sister-in-law(4) Sister (5) Brother 163. If Z is daughter of T, then how is B related to Z? (1) Uncle (2) Father (3) Aunt (4) Can't be determined (5) Mother Ph: , (M)

25 funsz'k ( ): uhps fn, x, izr;sd iz'u esa,d iz'u vksj mlds ckn rhu dfku I, II vksj III fn, x, gsaa vkidks ;g r; djuk gs fd dfkuksa esa fn;k x;k MkVk iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs ;k ughaa rhuksa dfkuksa dks if<+, vksj mùkj nhft, (1) ;fn dfku I o II dk MkVk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs tcfd dfku III dk MkVk iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, vko';d ugha gsa (2) ;fn dfku I o III dk MkVk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs tcfd dfku II dk MkVk iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, vko';d ugha gsa (3) ;fn dfku II o III dk MkVk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs tcfd dfku I dk MkVk iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, vko';d ugha gsa (4) ;fn ;k rks dsoy dfku I ;k dsoy dfku II ;k dsoy dfku III iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gsa (5) ;fn I, II vksj III rhuksa dfkuksa dk MkVk feydj iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, vko';d gsa 164. P, Q, R, S, T vksj V uked Ng yksxksa esa ls izr;sd O;fDr,d Ng eaftyk bekjr dh fhkuu eafty ij jgrk gsa bekjr esa,d ls Ng rd Ng eaftys gs a (Hkwry uacj 1 gs, mlds mqij uacj 2, vksj mlds vkxs mlh rjg rfkk lcls mqij dh eafty dk ucaj 6 gs)a lcls mqijh eafty ij dksu jgrk gs? I. ftu eaftyks a ij R vksj Q jgrs gs a] muds chp es a dsoy,d eafty gsa P,d le la[;k okyh eafty ij jgrk gsa II. T le la[;k okyh eafty ij ugha jgrk gsa Q lcls mqijh eafty ij ugha jgrk gsa III. S fo"ke la[;k okyh eafty ij jgrk gsa ftu eaftyksa ij S vksj P jgrs gs a] mu eaftyksa ds chp nks eaftysa gs aa T, R dh eafty ls,dne mqij okyh eafty ij jgrk gsa 165. W, A, R, S, N vksj E Ng v{kj gs aa D;k bu Ng v{kjksa dk iz;ksx djrs gq, dsoy fueu ifjpkyu djus ds ckn 'AN- SWER' 'kcn curk gs? I. E dks A ds nk,a pksfks LFkku ij j[kk tkrk gsa S dks A ;k E ds,dne ckn ugha j[kk tkrk gsa II. R dks E ds,dne vkxs (ck,a ;k nk,a) j[kk tkrk gsa W dks S ds,dne vkxas (ck,a ;k nk,a) j[kk tkrk gsa III. N vksj W nksuksa S ds,dne ckn j[kk tkrk gsa 'kcn R las vkjahk ugha gksrk gsa A dks W ds,dne ckn ugha j[kk tkrk gsa 166. fcunq D, fcunq B ds laca/ esa fdl n'kk dks gs? I. fcunq A, fcunq B ds if'pe dks gsa fcunq C, fcunq B ds mùkj eas gsa fcunq D, fcunq C ds nf{k.k eas gsa II. fcunq G, fcunq D ds nf{k.k eas gsa fcunq G, fcunq B ls 4 eh gsa fcunq D, fcunq B ls 9 eh gsa III. fcunq A, fcunq B ds if'pe dks gsa fcunq B, fcunq A vksj fcunq E ds Bhd eè; es a gsa fcunq F, fcunq E ds nf{k.k eas gsa fcunq D, fcunq F ds if'pe eas gsa 167.,d dksm Hkk"kk esa 'one' dks dsls dksmc¼ fd;k tkrk gs? I. 'one of its kind' dks 'zo pi ko fe' dksm fd;k tkrk gs vksj 'in kind and cash' dks 'ga to ru ko' dksm fn;k tkrk gsa II. 'its point for origin' dks 'ba le fe mi' dksm fn;k tkrk gs vksj 'make a point clear' dks 'yu si mi de' dksm fn;k tkrk gsa III. 'make money and cash' dks 'to mi ru hy' dksm fn;k tkrk gs vksj 'money of various kind' dks 'qu ko zo hy' dksm fn;k tkrk gsa 168. D;k o`ùkkdkj est ds fxnz csbs gq, pkjksa fe=kksa ;Fkk A, B, C vksj D dk eqag dsanz dh vksj gs? I. B, D ds nk,a dks nwljs LFkku ij csbk gsa D dk eqag dsanz dh vksj gsa C, B o D nksuksa dh nkbz cxy esa csbk gsa II. A, B dh ckbz cxy esa csbk gsa C, A dh cxy esa ugha csbk gsa C, D dh nkbz cxy esa csbk gsa III. D, A o C nksuks a dh cxy esa csbk gsa B, A dh ckbz cxy esa csbk gsa C, B dh ckbz cxy esa csbk gsa funsz'k ( ): ;s iz'u mqij nh xbz tkudkjh vksj uhps fn, x, (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) vksj (F) uked okd;ks a ij vk/kfjr gs a: (A) cm+s czkam dh rqyuk esa xq.koùkk okys fdlh mrikn dk fofuekz.k djus okyk NkVk czkam] lqij cktkj dh rqyuk esa LFkkuh; fdjkuk LVksjksa ls vf/d ykhkktzu djrk gsa (B) orzeku esa lqij cktkj dsoy cm+s 'kgjksa esa LFkkfir gs vr% NksVs 'kgjksa esa bl dne dk dksbz ykhk ugha gksxka (C) forj.k esa vf/d fuos'k fd, fcuk u, cktkjksa esa isb cukus ds fy, lqij cktkj NksVs czkam dh lgk;rk djrs gs aa (D) cm+s czkamksa dks izhkkfjr jkf'k ls lqij cktkj NksVs czkamksa dks 10% vf/d jkf'k izhkkfjr djrk gsa (E) cm+s czkamksa dh la[;k vf/d gksus ds dkj.k] lqij cktkj dh rqyuk esa LFkkuh; fdjk;k LVksjksa esa NksVs czkam de utj vkrs gsaa (F) gky esa NksVs czkam vius dkjksckj esa cgqr gkfu mbkrs gsaa 169. mqij mfyyf[kr (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) vksj (F) es a ls fdl dfku dk mlesa fn, x, rf;ksa@tkudkjh ls iwoz/kj.kk dh tk ldrh gs? (iwoz/kj.kk og ckr gs ftls ;k rks eku fy;k x;k gks ;k og x`ghr gksa) (1) dsoy (A) (2) dsoy (B) (3) (B) vksj (C) nksuksa (4) (D) vksj (E) nksuksa (5) dsoy (F) 170. (A), (B), (C), (E) vksj (F) esa ls dksu&lk dfku NksVs czkam ds ifjizs{; ls lqij cktkjksa dh rqyuk esa NksVs fdjkuk LVksajksa ds uqdlku dks fu:fir djrk gs? (1) dsoy (A) (2) dsoy (C) (3) dsoy (E) (4) dsoy (F) (5) (B) vksj (C) nksuksa Ph: , (M)

26 Directions ( ): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and give answer (1) if the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III are not required to answer the question. (2) if the data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II are not required to answer the question. (3) if the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I are not required to answer the question. (4) if the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone or in statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question. (5) if the data in all the statements I, II and III together are necessarry to answer the question Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V, each lives on a different floor of a six-storey building having its six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, floor the above it, number 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor? I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even-numbered floor. II. T does not live on an even-numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor. III. S lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R's floor There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is 'AN- SWER' the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only? I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E. II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S. III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B? I. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is to the south of Point C. II. Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4 m from Point B. Point D is 9 m from Point B. III. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is exactly midway between Point A and E. Point F is to the south of Point E. Point D is to the west of Point F How is 'one' coded in a code language? I. 'one of its kind' is coded as 'zo pi ko fe' and 'in kind and cash' is coded as 'ga to ru ko'. Ph: , (M) II. 'its point for origin' is coded as 'ba le fe mi' and 'make a point clear' is coded as 'yu si mi de'. III. 'make money and cash' is coded as 'to mi ru hy' and 'money of various kind' is coded as 'qu ko zo hy' Are all the four friends, viz A, B, C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre? I. B sits second to the right of D. D faces the centre. C sits on the immediate right of both B and D. II. A sits on the immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits on the immediate right of D. III. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits on the immediate left of A. C sits on the immediate right of B. Directions ( ): These questions are based on the information given above and the sentence labelled (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) as given below: (A) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets. (B) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities. (C) Supermarkets help the smaller brand break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution. (D) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higer than the amount charged to the bigger brands. (E) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores ins much lower as compared to the supermarkets. (F) Smaller brands are currently making substantially losses in their business Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted) (1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Both (B) and (C) (4) Both (D) and (E) (5) Only (F) 170. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F) represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand? (1) Only (A) (2) Only (C) (3) Only (E) (4) Only (F) (5) Both (B) and (C)

27 zz a Centres at: MUKHERJEE NAGAR MUNIRKA UTTAM NAGAR DILSHAD GARDEN ROHINI BADARPUR JAIPUR GURGAON LAXMI NAGAR 171. mqij mfyyf[kr (A), (B), (C), (D) vksj (E) esa ls dksu&lk dfku NksVs czkam }kjk LFkkuh; fdjkuk LVksj ls lqij cktkj esa f'kýv djus ds dkj.k dks fu:fir djrk gs? (1) dsoy (A) (2) dsoy (B) (3) dsoy (D) (4) (A) vksj (E) nksuksa (5) (C) vksj (E) nksuksa 172. mqij mfyy[kr (A), (B), (C), (E) vksj (F) ea s ls dksu&lk dfku ;g fl¼ djsxk fd NksVs czkamks a }kjk mbk;k x;k dne (lqij cktkjks es a tkus dk) vfuok;zr% lgh ugha Hkh gks ldrk gs? (1) dsoy (A) (2) dsoy (C) (3) dsoy (E) (4) dsoy (F) (5) (B) vksj (E) nksuksa 173.,d fuf'pr dwv Hkk"kk esa 'PLANT' dks '$@2 ' rfkk 'YIELD' dks 'b 64@% fy[kk tkrk gsa mlh dwv Hkk"k esa 'DELAY' fdl izdkj fy[kk tk,xk? (1) b 4 2% (2) b 4@2% (3) %42@b (4) %4@2b 174. izr;sd 'kcn esa izr;sd v{kjk dk dsoy,d ckj iz;ksx djrs gq, v{kjksa 'ARILT' ls vaxzsth ds fdrus vfkziw.kz 'kcn cuk, tk ldrs gsa? (1) dksbz ugha (2),d (3) nks (4) rhu (5) rhu ls vf/d 175. D us dgk, "A dk firk esjh cgu ds HkkbZ dk,dek=k HkkbZ gsa A dk firk fdl izdkj D ls lacaf/r gs? (1) dftu (2) usý;w (3) vkav (4) vkadm+s vi;kzir gsa 176. dai;wvj ls i<+s tkus okys vyx&vyx yackbz&pksm+kbzz z dh ykbuksa okys dksm dks dgrs gsaa (1) ASCII dksm (2) esxusfvd Vsi (3) ckj dksm (4) OCR LdSuj 177. ikvz uacj] ikvz fmflozqi'ku vksj vkmzj fd, x, ikvz~zl dk mnkgj.k gsaa (1) davªksy (2) vkmviqv (3) izkslsflax (4) iqhmcsd (5) buiqv 178. MkVk LVksj djus vksj ifjdyu ds fy, dai;wvj uacj fllve dk mi;ksx djrs gsaa (1) ckbujh (2) vkwdvy (3) Msfley (4) gsdlkmsfley 179. Vscy ds davsv~l dks dkwye dh pksm+kbz esa vkwvksesfvdyh fiqv djus ds fy, omz dks balvªdv djus gsrq cvu fdyd dj vkwvks fiqv davsav~l dks ikwbav dhft,a (1) fiqv Vw iqkwez (2) iqkeszv (3) vkwvks lkbt (4) davs av~l (5) vkwvks fiqv 180. omz esa vki,d ist czsd iqkslz dj ldrs gsaa (1) dlzj dks mfpr LFkku ij j[k dj vksj F1 dh izsl dj (2) dlzj dks mfpr LFkku ij j[k dj vksj Ctrl + Entre izsl dj (3) bulvz@lsd'ku czsd dk iz;ksx dj (4) vius MkWD;wesaV dk iqkwuv lkbt psat dj 181. ls vki,d gh czkmtj foamks esa,d lkfk cgqr ls osc ist [kqys j[k ldrs gsaa (1) VSc ckwdl (2) ikwi&vi gsyij (3) VSc jks (4),MS ªl ckj (5) bldsi dqath 182. ;fn vki fdlh nwljs LFkku ls bavjusv ds tfj, vius dai;wvj dks dusdv djuk pkgs rks vki dk iz;ksx dj ldrs gsaa (1) bz&esy (2) FTP (3) bulvsav eslst (4) VsyusV 183. LVksjst ehfm;k ds :i esa CD-ROM dk ykhk fueu esa ls dksu&lk gs? (1) CD-ROM fo'kky ek=kk esa MkVk o lwpuk dks LVksj djus dk llrk rjhdk gs (2) CD-ROM fmld MkVk vksj lwpuk dks esxusfvd fmld dh rqyuk esa tynh fjvªho djrh gsa (3) CD-ROM esxusfvd ehfm;k dh rqyuk esa de =kqfv;ka djrk gs (4) mijksdr lhkh 184. MkVk@tkudkjh dks LVksj djus ds fy, fueu esa ls dksu&lh LVksjst fmokbl dm+h LFkkbZ :i ls LFkkfir esxusfvd fmldksa dk iz;ksx djrh gs? (1) ÝykWih fmldsv (2) gkmz fmld (3) iekzusav fmld (4) vkwfivdy fmld 185. gkmzos;j ds ml VqdM+s dks dgrs gsa tks vkids dai;wvj ds fmftvy flxuy dks,ukykwx esa cnyrk gs vksj VsyhiQksu ykbuksa ds tfj, ;k=kk dj ldrk gsa (1) jsm ok;j (2) Cyw dkwmz (3) VkWoj (4) eksme Ph: , (M)

28 171. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands? (1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (D) (4) Both (A) and (E) (5) Both (C) and (E) 172. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F) mentioned above would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct? (1) Only (A) (2) Only (C) (3) Only (E) (4) Only (F) (5) Both (B) and (E) 173. In a certain code, 'PLANT' is written as '$@2 ' and 'YIELD' is written as 'b 64@%.. How is 'DELAY' written in that code? (1) b 4 2% (2) b 4@2% (3) %42@b (4) %4@2b 174. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters 'ARILT' using each letter only once in that word? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 175. D said, "A's father is the only brother of my sister's son." How is A's father related to D? (1) Cousin (2) Nephew (3) Aunt (4) Data inadequate 176. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as. (1) an ASCII code (2) a magnetic tape (3) a bar code (4) an OCR scanner 177. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of. (1) control (2) output (3) processing (4) feedback (5) input 178. Computers use the number system to store data and perform calculations. (1) binary (2) octal (3) decimal (4) hexadecimal 179. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the button and then point to AutoFit Contents. (1) Fit to Form (2) Format (3) Autosize (4) Contents (5) AutoFit 180. In Word you can force a page break. (1) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key. (2) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the ctrl + enter (3) by using the Inserting/Section Break (4) by changing the font size of your document 181. The enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages in one browser window. (1) tab box (2) pop-up helper (3) tab row (4) address bar (5) Esc key 182. If you want to connect to your own computer through the Internet from another location, you can use (1) (2) FTP (3) instant message (4) Telnet 183. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media? (1) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large amount of data and information (2) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do. (3) CD- ROMs make less er rors t han magnetic media. (4) All of the above 184. Which of the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information? (1) Floppy diskette (2) Hard disk (3) Permanent disk (4) Optical disk 185. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel over telephone lines is called a. (1) red wire (2) blue cord (3) tower (4) modem Ph: , (M)

29 186. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&ls def'kz;y lkwývos;j mrikn ozqe'k% vkwijsfvax fllve lkwývos;j vksj,sfiyds'ku lkwývos;j ds mnkgj.k gsa? (1) ekbozqkslkwýv foamkst XP vksj ekbozqkslkwýv omz (2) ekbozqkslkwýv vkwfiql XP vksj ekbozqkslkwýv foamkst XP (3) MS DOS vksj ekbozqkslkwýv foamkst XP (4) UNIX vksj LINUX (5) UNIX vksj Java 187. igys ls fmtkbu fd;k x;k MkWD;qesaV gs ftlesa mlls feyrs gq, iqkwuv] ys vkmv vksj csdxzkmam gksrk gsa (1) xkbm (2) ekwmy (3) :yj (4) VsEiysV 188.,d NksVs flfydkwu fpi ij VªkaftLVjksa vksj vu; bysdvªkwfud midj.kks a ds lkfk iw.kz bysdvªkwfud lfdzv dks dgrs gsaa (1) odzlvs'ku (2) CPU (3) esxusfvd fmld (4) bafvxz sfvm lfdzv 189. buiqkjesz'ku izkslsflax lkbfdy ds iks'kzu ds nksjku dai;wvj fdlh lkslz ls MkVk ysrk gsa (1) LVksjst vksj vkmviqv (2) LVksjst (3) buiqv (4) vkmviqv 190. fdlh lalfkk esa MkVkcsl,fMfefuLVsª'ku dk iqad'ku gksrk gsa (1) lalfkk ds MkVkcslksa esa j[kh lwpuk ds izca/u ds vf/d rduhdh igyqvksa ds fy, fteesnkj gksuk (2) lwpuk izca/ ls lacaf/r fu.kz;ksa ds,dthd;wfvo ysoy ds igyqvksa ds fy, fteesnkj gksuk (3) MkVk os;jgkml,afvvh Dyklks a ds chp fjys'kuf'ki fn[kkuk (4) ;g ifjhkkf"kr djuk fd MkVk,DLVªSDV djus ds fy, fdl ekbfuax Vwy dk iz;ksx djuk pkfg, Ph: , (M)

30 186. Which of the following commercial-software products are examples of operating system sof tware and application software, respectively? (1) Microsoft Windows XP and Microsoft Word (2) Microsoft Office XP and Microsoft Window XP (3) MS DOS and Microsoft Windows XP (4) UNIX and LINUX (5) UNIX and Java 187. A pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background During the portion of the Information Processing Cycle, the computer acquires data from some source. (1) storage and output (2) storage (3) input (4) output 190. The database administrator's function in an organisation is. (1) To be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information (1) guide (2) model contained in organizational databases. (3) ruler (4) template (2) To be responsible for the executivelevel aspects of decisions regarding 188. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n). information management (3) To show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse (1) workstation (2) CPU (4) To define which data mining tools must (3) magnetic disk (4) integrated circuit be used to extract data Ph: , (M)

31 Ph: , (M)