MLR Institute of Technology

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1 MLR Institute of Technology Laxma Reddy Avenue, Dundigal, Quthbullapur (M), Hyderabad Phone Nos: / , Fax : UNIT WISE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS Course Name : SOFT WARE ENGINEERING Course Code : A50518 Class : III B. Tech II Semester Branch : Computer Science and Engineering Year : Course Faculty : Dr.K.Kiran reddy,professor Dr K.V.S.N Rama rao HOD, Professor Dr K.L.Chugh Professor OBJECTIVES: 1. To meet the challenge of ensuring excellence in engineering education, the issue of quality needs to be addressed, debated and taken forward in a systematic manner. 2. Accreditation is the principal means of quality assurance in higher education. The major emphasis of accreditation process is to measure the outcomes of the program that is being accredited. 3. In line with this, Faculty of Institute of Aeronautical Engineering, Hyderabad has taken a lead in incorporating philosophy of outcome based education in the process of problem solving and career development. So, all students of the institute should understand the depth and approach of course to be taught through this question bank, which will enhance learner s learning process.

2 UNIT-1 1. The statement of an organization s commitment to quality is a Policy a) Vision b) Mission c) Principle d) Goal 2. Which of the following is not a defect metric? a) Location b) Cause c) Time to fix d) All the above 3. Quality improvement programs may require the product itself to be changed. 4. Which of the following does not form a part of a workbench? a) Standards b) Quality attributes c) Quality Control d) Procedures e) Rework 5. The focus on the product is highest during

3 a) A walkthrough b) A checkpoint review c) An inspection 6. During an inspection, inspectors normally make suggestions on correcting the defects found. 7. Modifying existing standards to better match the need of a project or environment is Definition a) Standard for a standard b) Tailoring c) Customization d) None of the above 8. The term benchmarking means a) Comparing with past data from your organization b) Comparing with result of a market survey c) Comparing with the results of a customer survey d) None of the above 9. An example of deployment of a quality approach is: The degree to which the approach embodies effective evaluation cycles a) The appropriate and effective application to all product and service characteristics b) The effectiveness of the use of tools, techniques, and methods c) The contribution of outcomes and effects to quality improvement

4 d) The significance of improvement to the company s business 10. The concept of continuous improvement as applied to quality means: Employees will continue to get better a) Processes will be improved by a lot of small improvements b) Processes will be improved through a few large improvements c) Improved technology will be added to the process, such as acquiring CASE tools d) The functionality of the products will be enhanced 11. The activity which includes confirming understanding, brainstorming and testing ideas is a a) Code walkthrough b) Inspection c) Review d) Structured walkthrough 12. The following can be considered to measure quality: a) Customer satisfaction b) Defects c) Rework d) All of the above 13. the most common reason for the presence of large number of bugs in a software product is a) Incompetence of the developer b) Incompetence of the tester c) Bad requirements

5 d) Wrong use of tools and techniques 14. System Test Plan will not include Approach a) Pass/Fail criteria b) Risks c) Suspension and Resumption criteria d) None of the above 15. Function Point is not a measure of a) Effort b) Complexity c) Usability d) All of the above 16. Quality assurance personnel must not be involved in changing work products. 17. The purpose of cost-of-quality computations is to show how much is being spent for the quality control and quality assurance program. 18. Method by which release from the requirements of a specific standard may be obtained for a specific situation is a Tailoring a) Customization\ b) Force field analysis

6 c) Waiver d) None of the above 19. Measure designed to minimize the probability of modification, destruction, or inability to retrieve software or data is a) Preventive security b) Corrective security c) Protective security d) None of the above 20. Quality assurance is a function responsible for a) Controlling quality b) Managing quality c) Inspections d) Removal of defects Unit-2 Objective Questions 1. The word management in quality assurance describes many different functions, encompassing a) Policy management b) Human resource management, safety control c) Component control and management of other resources and daily schedules d) None of the above Ans: e

7 2. With defined process in SEI s process model, organization will achieve the foundation for major and continuing process. Ans: a 3. Statistical process control help to identify the of process problems which are causing defects. a) Root cause b) Nature c) Person/persons involve d) All of the above e) None of the above Ans: b 4. Requirement s engineering is a generic process that does not vary from one software project to another 5. During project inception the internet of the tasks are to determine a) Basic problem understanding b) Nature of the solution needed c) People who want a solution d) None of the above 6. Three things that make requirements elicitation difficult are problems of a) Budgeting b) Scope c) Understanding d) Volatility

8 7. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development or 8. It is relatively common for different customers to propose conflicting requirements, each arguing that his version is the right one. 9. Which of the following is not one of the context-free questions that would be used during project inception? a) What will be the economic benefit from a good solution? b) Who is behind the request for work? c) Who will pay for the work? d) Who will use the solution? 10. In collaborative requirements gathering the facilitator a) Arranges the meeting place b) Can not be a customer c) Controls the meeting d) Must be an outsider 11. Which of the following is not one of the requirement classifications used in Quality Functions Deployment? a) Exciting b) Expected c) Mandatory d) Normal 12. The work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary depending on th e a) Size of the budget

9 b) Size of the product being built c) Software process being used d) Stakeholder s needs 13. Developers and customers create use-cases to help the software team understand how differ rent classes of end-users will use functions. 14. Use-case actors are always people, never system devices. 15. The result of the requirements engineering task is an analysis model that defines which of the following problem domains? a) Information b) Functional c) Behavioral d) All of the above 16. Analysis patterns facilitate the transformation of the analysis model into a design model by suggesting reliable solutions to common problems 17. In win-win negotiation, the custome4r s needs are met even though the developers need may not be. 18. Complexity measurements are quantitative values accumulated by a pre-determined method for measuring complexity of a a) Software engineering process b) Software product c) Database d) Project team

10 19. Function points provide an objective measure of the application system that can be used to compare different kinds of application systems a) Size b) Complexity c) Performance d) Operation ease 20. Which of the following is not relevant in quantifying the amount of information processing function? a) External inquiry b) Software platform c) External output d) Logical internal file Unit-3 Objective Questions 1. Function point analysis requires information on hardware and software for the application system. 2. Statistical methods are used to differentiate random variation from a) Standards b) Assignable variation c) Control limits d) Specification limits Ans: c 3. Random causes of process problems can be eliminated a) Sometimes b) Never c) Rarely d) Always Ans: d 4. Which two factors must be considered when developing acceptance criteria? a) Match with requirements b) Ability to benchmark system

11 c) Schedule of system delivery 5. Which two are included the software requirements specification? a) Error handling b) Data description c) Functional description d) Performance description 6. A data dictionary was created during the requirements analysis phase of a software engineering project. What information does it contain? a) Interface b) Data type c) Restrictions d) Content description 7. What is configuration management in software engineering? a) Overall management of the design of the system b) Management of the configurable components in a system c) The identification o the configuration of a system at discreet points in time to control changes to the configuration d) In object-oriented programming, the management of objects that control the configuration of some other function (s) in the system 8. Which statement about the preliminary design stage of a software development project is true? a) The preliminary design is an internal document used only by programmers. b) The preliminary design is a result of mapping product requirements into software and hardware functions. c) The preliminary produce the preliminary design by defining the software structure in enough detail to programmer. d) The developers produce the preliminary design by defining the software structure in enough detail permit coding. 9. What is functional decomposition in software system design? a) A design method that breaks a system into smaller units. b) A requirements analysis method that breaks the system into cohesive and related units. c) A design methodology that uses modular prototypes to build the complete system d) The ability to upgrade the features of a particular module of a system with minimal impact on other modules 10. Which modeling methodology most clearly shows the classification and abstraction of entities in the system? a) Data flow model b) Event driven model c) Object oriented model d) Entity-relationship model

12 11. Which three not-functional system requirements are affected by system architecture? Cost a) Security b) Usability c) Performance d) Maintainability 12. Which statement about a prototype is true? a) It is a functional model of the entire system b) It is the complete untested product ready for final review by the customer c) It is necessary in order to accurately verify that the product is progressing in accordance with requirements specifications d) It is a full-scale model of the entire system at some partial stage in development showing the functional form of the system 13. What is usability in software engineering? a) The ability of the end user to use the product successfully b) A measure of the relative effort required to learn how to use a software product c) The degree to which the product integrates with the environment in which it is used d) A metric that describes the degree to which a software product meets its requirements 14. Software it work done to enhance software functionally, correct errors and improve the performance of software a) Re-design b) Maintenance c) Corrections d) Re-engineering 15. How is an application s version different from its release? a) A release is a small change to an earlier release b) A version is a small change made to an earlier version c) Versions the one made available to customers and a release is a change to a previous version d) A release is the one made available to customers and a version is a change to a previous release. 16. Which two steps is part of a typical post-implementation review? a) Briefly describe the general impact of the system on the managers, users, and customers. b) Outline the traceability matrix mapping requirements to function points to test cases to test results c) Generate an architectural baseline from which to measure risk, success factors, and customer satisfaction

13 d) Describe the primary project management methodology and systems developments methodology used to develop the system 17. Which of the following is not one of the broad categories used to classify operations? a) Computation b) Data manipulation c) Event monitors d) Transformers 18. Objects inherit a class a) Operations b) Name c) Relationships d) Instance 19. Data object description incorporates data and a) Its report b) Occurrence c) Attributes d) Instances 20. The maximum number of objects that can participate in a relationship is called a) Directionality b) Composition c) Multiplicity d) Cardinality 1. An important step in interface design is Unit-4 Objective Questions a) Modeling b) Interface analysis c) Physical environment in which the objects should work d) Definition of interface objects and the action applied on them 2. Name and two design evaluation techniques a) Application accessibility and internationalization b) Feedback and amount of learning required by users c) User request help and page layout d) System response time and user help facilities 3. The two characteristics of system response time are

14 a) Length and variability b) Menu and labeling c) Analysis and patterns d) Speed and time 4. First level prototype is evaluated by a) Developer b) User c) Designer d) Tester 5. To collect qualitative data, can be distributed to users of the prototype a) CASE tools b) Reusable components the design c) Use cases d) Questionnaires 6. the unit test focuses on and within the boundaries of a component a) Inconsistencies and omissions b) Outright errors and quality c) Internal processing logic and data structures d) Verification and validation on units 7. a systematic technique for constructing the software architecture while interfacing to uncover errors is called a) Unit testing b) Integration testing c) System testing d) Smoke testing 8. testing is the re-execution of some subset of tests that have already been conducted to ensure that changes have not propagated a) Regression testing

15 b) Smoke testing c) Integration testing d) Sandwich testing 9. The process of uncovering errors, diagnosing them and correcting them is called a) Testing b) Planning c) Debugging d) Designing 10. Initially, tests focus on each component individually for functionality of the comment and this test is called a) Unit testing b) Integration testing c) System testing d) Basis path testing 11. in an object oriented testing strategy the focus of testing is a) A unit b) A class c) A package d) A component 12. tests for subordinate levels testing uses top-down tests for upper levels of the program structure, coupled with bottom-up a) Sandwich testing b) Integration testing c) Smoke testing d) Regression testing 13. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context? a) Class testing b) Thread based testing

16 c) Validation testing d) Formal technical testing 14. Software is tested to uncover that were made inadvertently as it was designed and constructed a) Faults b) Errors c) Bugs d) Mistakes 15. testing is designed to test the run-time performance of software within the context of an integrated system a) Integration testing b) Performance testing c) System testing d) Validation testing 16. Brute force, backtracking, because elimination are strategies used in a) Art of debugging b) System testing c) Smoke testing d) Performance testing 17. Recovery testing is a part of integration testing 18. Validation testing begins at the culmination of testing a) System testing b) Smoke testing c) Integration testing d) OO testing 19. Software is how easily a computer program can be tested

17 a) Testability b) Operability c) Decomposability d) Stability 20. During security testing the tester plays the role of the individual who desire to a) Debug the system b) Identify errors during integration c) Penetrate the system d) Check for validations Unit-5 Objective Questions 1. Function Point measures are programming language dependent. 2. is a detailed sequence of steps that describes the interaction between the user and the a) Key classes b) Support classes c) Scenario scritpts d) Susb systems 3. A is an aggregation of classes that support a function that is visible to the end-user of a system a) Scenarion scripts b) Key classes c) Support classes

18 d) Susb systems 4. Mention any two web engineering project metrics a) Scenario scripts and number of key classes b) Number of support classes and subsystems c) Numbers of static pages and number of internal page link d) Use cases and lines of code 5. metrics are derived by normalizing quality and / or productivity measures by considering the size of the software that has been produced a) Direct b) Indirect c) Size oriented d) Process oriented 6. is the degree to which the software performs its required function. a) Correctness b) Integilty c) Usability d) Maintainability 7.the most common measure for correctness is a) KLOC b) Function point c) Security d) Defects per KLOC 8. COCOMO stands for a) Customer cost model b) Constructive cost model

19 c) Consistent cost model d) Configuration cost model 9. the most common measure for correctness is a. KLOC b. Function point c. Security d. Defects per KLOC 10. COCOMO stands for a. customer cost model b. constructive cost model c. consistent cost model d. configuration cost model 11. SEI stands for a. number of errors found during software engineering activity i b. number of defects found before delivery in activity i c. number of defects found after delivery in activity i d. number of errors found in the i 12. MTTC stands for a. Maintenance to track changes b. Mean time to change c. metrics to translate change d. measure to track changes is the probability that an attack of a specific type will occur within a given time a. Integrity

20 b. security c. threat d. attack 14. Staff turnover, poor communication with the customer are risks which are extrapolated from past experience and are called risks a. technical risks b. known risks c. predictable risks d. unpredictable risks 15. Software risk always involves two characteristics a. fire fighting and crisis management b. known and unknown risks c. uncertainty and loss d. staffing and budget 16. Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences affecting a. planning, resources, cost, schedule b. marketability, cost, personnel c. business, technology, process d. performance, support, cost, schedule 17. Reactive risk strategies are also called fire fighting mode. a. true b. false 18. The reason for refining risks is to break them into smaller units having different consequences. a. true b. false

21 19. Building an excellent product or system that no one really want is a. technical risk b. business risk c. known risk d. project risk 20. The risk which gives the degree of uncertainty that the project schedule will be maintained and that the product will be delivered in time is a. known risk b. unknown risk c. schedule risk d. technical risk