2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI rdz'kfdr ijh{k.k

Transcription

1 funsz'k (1-5) : fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dks è;ku ls i<+dj fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nhft,a vkb O;fDr MSfu;y] bczkfge] iquk] tkwtz] fgddi] bz'kku] tsd vksj dsfyou,d vkb eaftyk bekjr ds vkb vyx&vyx eaftyksa esa jgrs gsa ysfdu t:jh ugha blh Øe esaa bekjr dh lcls uhpyh eafty la[;k 1] igyh eafty la[;k 2 vksj lcls Åijh eafty la[;k 8 gsa os lhkh jkt; fo'ofo ky; esa fofhkuu fo"k;ks a tsls tso izks ksfxdh] HkkSfrdh] tho fokku] dei;wvj fokku] xf.kr] ekufodh] bfrgkl vksj Hkwxksy ds fo'ks"kk gsa ysfdu t:jh ugha blh Øe esaa og tks pksfkh eafty ij jgrk gs] xf.kr esa fof'k"v gsa MSfu;y fo"ke la[;k eafty esa jgrk gs ysfdu rhljh eafty ds Åij gsa MSfu;y vksj ekufodh fof'k"v O;fDr ds chp O;fDr;ksa dh la[;k] MSfu;y vksj bz'kku ds chp O;fDr;ksa dh la[;k leku gsa og tks HkkSfrdh esa fof'k"v gs lcls fupyh eafty ij jgrk gsa dsfyou le la[;k eafty ij jgrk gs vksj bfrgkl esa fof'k"v gsa bczkfge vksj fgddi ds chp nks eaftysa gsa vksj bczkfge] fgddi ds Åij eafty esa jgrk gsa bczkfge dei;wvj fokku esa fof'k"v gsa dei;wvj fokku esa fof'k"v O;fDr ds Bhd Åij okyh eafty esa tsd jgrk gsa dei;wvj fokku vksj xf.kr esa fof'k"v O;fDr;ksa ds chp nks eaftysa gsaa og tks Hkwxksy esa fof'k"v gs] fo"ke la[;k eafty esa jgrk gsa og tks tso izks ksfxdh esa fof'k"v gs vksj tsd ds chp pkj eaftysa gsaa og tks dei;wvj fokku esa fof'k"v gs] fo"ke la[;k eafty ij jgrk gsa Hkwxksy esa fof'k"v O;fDr vksj iquk ds eafty ds chp eaftyksa dh la[;k] iquk vksj tkwtz ds chp eaftyksa dh la[;k leku gsa bz'kku] MSfu;y ds eafty ds uhps okys eafty esa jgrk gsa 1. tso izks kfxdh vksj ekufodh esa fof'k"v O;fDr;ksa ds chp fdrus O;fDr jgrs gsa\ (1) N% (2),d (3) pkj (4) nks A 2. fueu esa ls tsd fdl fo"k; esa fof'k"v gs\ (1) dei;wvj fokku (2) ekufodh (3) Hkwxksy (4) HkkSfrdh (5) xf.kr 3. fueu ikap ls pkj fdlh izdkj,d leku gs vksj,d fuf'pr lewg dk fuekz.k djrs gsaa fueu esa ls dksu lewg ls lacaf/r ugha gs\ (1) tsad (2) dsfyou (3) fgddi (4) bz'kku (5) tkwtz rdz'kfdr ijh{k.k 4. MSfu;y fdl eafty ij jgrk gs (1) igyk (2) rhljk (3) pksfkk (4) ikapok (5) lkroka 5. tktz] xf.kr ls lacaf/r gs] blh izdkj leku iquk bfrgkl lacaf/r gks rks fueu esa ls fgddi fdlls lacaf/r gs\ (,d gh izdkj esa) (1) xf.kr (2) ekufodh (3) Hkwxksy (4) thofokku funsz'k (6-10) : fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dks è;ku ls i<+sa rfkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nhft,a vkb fe=k eukst] uh:] vksechj] fofiu] foyh] tsfo;j] ;kdwc vksj teik,d o"kz ds vyx&vyx ekg esa ;Fkk% ekpz] twu] vdvwcj vksj uoecj esa laxks"bh esa Hkkx ysrs gs a] izr;sd ekg nks ls T;knk fe=k laxks"bh esa Hkkx ugha ysrs gsa laxks"bh ekg ds ;k rks 10osa ;k 27osa fnu vk;ksftr gksrh gsa dksbz Hkh nks laxkss"bh leku fnu vk;ksftr ugha gksrh gsa foyh vksj uh: leku ekg esa laxks"bh tkrs gsaa tsfo;j vksj vksechj ds chp rhu laxks"bh vk;ksftr dh tkrh gsa uoacj ekg esa esa foyh viuh laxks"bh esa Hkkx ugha ysrk gsa teik viuh laxks"bh esa uh: ds Bhd ckn Hkkx ysrk gsa uoacj ekg esa fofiu viuh laxks"bh esa Hkkx ysrk gsa ;kdwc vksj teik ds laxks"bh ds chp] Hkkx ysus okys O;fDr;ksa uh: vksj fofiu ds laxks"bh ds chp O;fDr;ksa dh la[;k leku gsa vdvwcj ekg esa tsfo;j viuh laxks"bh esa Hkkx ugha ysrk gsa foyh viuh laxks"bh uh: ds laxks"bh ds igys Hkkx ysrk gsa 6. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu lk fe=k viuh laxks"bh esa 27 ekpz dks Hkkx ysrk gss\ (1) foyh (2) uh: (3) eukst (4) tsfo;j 7. foyh ds ckn fdrus fe=k laxks"bh esa Hkkx fy,\ (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3 Ph: ,

2 REASONING Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Eight persons viz : Daniel, Ibrahim, Fana, George, Hiccup, Ishan, Jack and Kelvin live in on different floors of eight floor building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, first floor of the building is numbered 2 and the topmost floor of the building is numbered 8. They are specialized in the different subjects in the state university viz : Biotechnology, Physics, Biology, Computer Science, Mathematics, Humanities, History, and Geography but not necessarily in the same order. The one who lives on fourth floor is specialized in Mathmatics. Daniel lives on odd numbered floor but above 3 rd floor. The number of person between Daniel and Humanities specialized person is same as number of person between denial and Ishan. The one who is specialized in Physics lives on lower most floor. Kelvin lives on an even numbered floor and he is specialized in History. There are two floors between Ibrahim and Hiccup and Ibrahim lives above to Hiccup. Ibrahim is specialized in Computer Science. Jack lives just above the one who is specialized in Computer Science. Two floors between the one who is specialized in Computer Science and Mathematics. The one who is specialized in Geography lives on odd numbered floor. Four floors between the one who is specialized in Biotechnology and Jack. The one who is specialized in Computer Science lives on odd numbered floor. The number of floors between the one who is specialized in Geography and the floor on which Fana lives is same as the number of floors between Fana and George. Ishan lives below the floor on which Daniel lives. 1. How many persons live between the person who is specialized in Biotechnology and the one who is specialized in Humanities? (1) Six (2) One (3) Four (4) Two 2. Jack is specialized in which of the following subject? (1) Computer Science (2) Humanities (3) Geography (4) Physics (5) Mathematics 3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? (1) Jack (2) Kelvin (3) Hiccup (4) Ishan (5) George 4. Denial lives on which floor? (1) 1st (2) 3rd (3) 4th (4) 5th (5) 7th 5. George is related to Mathematics, in the same way as Fana is related to History. Then, which of the following is Hiccup related to? (Following the same pattern) (1) Mathematics (2) Humanities (3) Geography (4) Biology Direction (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: Eight friends Manoj, Neeru, Ombir, Vipin, Willy, Xevier, Yacoub and Zampa attend symposiums on different months of the year viz. March, June, October and November, such that not more than two friends attend their symposiums in each of the months. Symposiums can be held on either 10 th or 27th day of the month. No two symposiums can be held on the same day. Willy and Neeru attend the symposiums on the same month. There are three symposiums held between the symposiums of Xevier and Ombir. Willy does not attend their symposium in November. Zampa attends his symposium immediately after Neeru. Vipin attends his symposium in the month of November. The number of friends who attend their symposiums between the symposiums of Yacoub and Zampa is the same as the number of friends who attend their symposiums between the symposiums of Neeru and Vipin. Xevier does not attend the symposium on October. Willy attends his symposium before Neeru. 6. Which of the following friends attends his symposium on 27th March? (1) Willy (2) Neeru (3) Manoj (4) Xevier 7. How many friends attend the symposium after Willy? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3 Ph: ,

3 8. fueu esa ls dksu&lk fe=k 10 vdvwcj dks fopkj laxks"bh esa Hkkx ysrk gs\ (1) foyh (2) eukst (3) fofiu (4) teik 9. fofiu ds ckn fdrus O;fDr laxks"bh esa Hkkx fy,\ (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) dksbz ugha 10. fueufyf[kr fdl rkjh[k dks eukst laxks"bh esa Hkkx ysrk gs\ (1) 10 vdvwcj (2) 27 uoacj (3) 10 uoacj (4) 10 ekpz A 11.,d O;fDr [kjhnkjh ds fy, cktkj tkrk gs vksj og vius?kj ls 12 fdeh- iwoz esa pyrk gs vksj fcunw M ij igwap tkrk gsa fcunw M ls og cka;h vksj eqm+rk gs vksj 4 fdeh- pyrk gs fiqj og nka;s eqm+rk gs vksj 6 fdeh- pyrk gs fiqj og vius nka;s eqm+rk gs vksj 7 fdeh- pyrk gs vksj fiqj og vius nka;h vksj eqm+rs gq, fcunw N ij igwap tkrk gsa ;fn ;g fn;k gs fd fcunw M, fcunw N ds mùkj esa gks rks M rfkk N ds chp dh nwjh D;k gs\ (1) 7 fdeh- (2) 6 fdeh- (3) 5 fdeh- (4) 4 fdeh- (5) 3 fdehfunsz'k (12-14): iz'uksa esa fofhkuu rroksa ds chp laca/] dfkuksa esa n'kkz, x, gsa dfku] nks fu"d"kksz }kjk vuqxeu fd;k tkrk gsa fn, x, dfku ds vk/kj ij fu"d"kksz dk vè;;u djsa vksj mfpr mùkj pqusaaa 12. dfku % B > C > D < E; D > F > G fu"d"kz % I. F < E II. F = E (1) nksuksa fu"d"kz I vksj II lr; gsaa (2) dsoy fu"d"kz II lr; gsa (3) dsoy fu"d"kz I lr; gsa (4) ;k rks fu"d"kz I ;k II lr; gsa (5) dksbz fu"d"kz lr; ugha gsa 13. dfku % N > O > P = Q; R < O < S fu"d"kz % I. S < N II. N > R (1) dsoy fu"d"kz II lr; gsa (2) ;k rks fu"d"kz I ;k II lr; gsa (3) nksuksa fu"d"kz I vksj II lr; gsaa (4) dsoy fu"d"kz I lr; gsa (5) dksbz fu"d"kz lr; ugha gsa 14. dfku % M < K > L = Y; P < T >M fu"d"kz % I. P > Y II. T < L (1) dsoy fu"d"kz II lr; gsa (2) dsoy fu"d"kz I lr; gsa (3) ;k rks fu"d"kz I ;k II lr; gsa (4) nksuksa fu"d"kz I vksj II lr; gsaa (5) dksbz fu"d"kz lr; ugha gsa 15.,d iafdr esa 13 O;fDr csbs gsaa iafdr ds izkjahk ls A lkaros LFkku ij gs vksj G rfkk A ds chp nks O;fDr csbsa gsaa A vksj L ds chp O;fDr] G rfkk Q ds chp O;fDr ds leku gss rks Q dk LFkku 'kq:vkr ls D;k gs\ (1) pksfkk (2) vkboka (3) NBoka (4) uksok (5) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrka funsz'k (16-20) : uhps fn, x, izr;sd iz'u esa,d iz'u vksj mlds uhps nks dfku I vksj II fn, x, gsaa vkidks ;g r; djuk gs fd dfkuksa esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs ;k ugha gsa nksuks a dfkuks a dks if<+, vksj mùkj nhft,a (1) ;fn dsoy dfku I esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs] tcfd dsoy dfku II esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir ugha gsa (2) ;fn dsoy dfku II esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs] tcfd dsoy dfku I esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir ugha gsa (3) ;fn ;k rks dsoy dfku I ;k dsoy dfku II esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gsa (4) ;fn dfku I vksj dfku II nksuksa dks vkadm+s feykdj Hkh iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir ugha gsa (5) ;fn dfku I vksj dfku II nksuksa dks vkadm+s feydj iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, vko';d gsa Ph: ,

4 8. Who among the following friends attends the symposium on 10 th October? (1) Willy (2) Manoj (3) Vipin (4) Zampa 9. How many friends attended symposium after Vipin? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) No one 10. Manoj attends his symposium on which of the following dates? (1) 10th October (2) 27th November (3) 10th November (4) 10th March 11. A Person going to market for shopping and start walking from home 12 km east and reaches point M. From point M he takes left turn and walks 4 km and then he takes right turn and walked 6 km and again he takes right turn and walks 7 km and again takes right turn and reaches point N. If it is given that point M is in north from point N, then what is the distance between M and N? (1) 7 km (2) 6 km (3) 5 km (4) 4 km (5) 3 km Direction (12-14): In these questions, relation between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. 12. Statement: B > C > D < E; D > F > G Conclusions: I. F < E II. F = E (1) Both conclusion I and II are true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Only conclusion I is true. (4) Either conclusion I or II is true. (5) None conclusion is true. 13. Statement: N > O > P = Q; R < O < S Conclusions: I. S < N Ph: , II. N > R (1) Only conclusion II is true. (2) Either conclusion I or II are true. (3) Both conclusion I and II are true (4) Only conclusion I is true. (5) None conclusion is true. 14. Statement: M < K > L = Y; P < T >M Conclusions: I. P > Y II. T < L (1) Only conclusion II is true. (2) Only conclusion I is true. (3) Either conclusion I or II are true. (4) Both conclusion I and II are true (5) None conclusion is true 15. In a line 13 persons are sitting. A is seventh from the beginning and two persons sits between G and A. Persons between A and L is same as persons between G and Q, Then what is the position of Q from the beginning? (1) Fourth (2) Eight (3) Sixth (4) Ninth (5) Can t be determined Direction (16-20): Each of the questions consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provide in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer. (1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question; (2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I all are not sufficient to answer the question; (3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question; (4) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question; (5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

5 16. G dk jsad d{kk esa muuhloka gsa d{kk ds vkf[kjh jsad ls mldh jsad D;k gs\ I. d{kk esa dqy 48 Nk=k gsaa II. J ftldh jsad leku d{kk esa 11osa jsad gs] vksj vkf[kjh ls 38oka jsad gsa 17. pkj fe=k R, K, T vksj S gsaa fueu buesa ls dksu lcls cm+k gs a\ I. K vksj T dh dqy vk;q,d lkfk S ds vk;q dh rqyuk esa T;knk gsa II. R vksj K dh dqy vk;q,d lkfk S ds vk;q dh rqyuk esa de gsa 18. pkj f[kykm+h M, N, O rfkk P dkmz [ksy jgs gsa] muesa ls O dk ikvzuj dksu gs\ I. P, N ds foijhr csbk gsa II. N, M ds nka;s vksj O ds cka;s csbk gsa 19. iquhr dh vk;q D;k gs\ I. iquhr] foiwy vksj dksey lhkh dh vk;q leku gsa II. foiwy] dksey vksj vuwi dh dqy vk;q 32 gs vksj vuwi] foiwy vksj dksey ds vk;q ds cjkcj gsa 20. A, B, C, D vksj E,d iafdr esa csbss gsa B, A rfkk E ds chp gsa buesa ls dksu iafdr ds eè; esa csbk gsa I. A, B ds Bhd cka;s vksj D ds Bhd nka;s gsa II. C nka;s vafre Nksj ij gsa funsz'k (21-23) : fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dk è;kuiwozd vè;;u djas rfkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nhft,a *, # dh cgu gsa #, & ls fookfgr gsa $ dk iq=k gsa dh ekrk gsa, dh firk gsa ds dsoy,d iq=k vksj,d iq=kh gsa * dh iq=kh gsa, # dk iq=k gsa 21. &, * ls dsls lacaf/r gs\ (1) HkkbZ (2) cznj&bu&ykw (3) dtu (4) pkpk (5) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk # ls dsls lacaf/r gs\ (1) iq=k (2) Hkkath@Hkrhth (3) lu&bu&ykw (4) Hkkath@Hkrhtk (5) iq=kh 23. ;fn $, % dh iruh gs rks % ls dsls lacaf/r gs\ (1) lu&bu&ykw (2) iks=k (3) Hkrhtk@Hkkatk (4) iq=k (5) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk funs Z'k (24-27) : fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dk è;kuiwozd vè;;u djas rfkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nhft,a lkr O;fDr A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6 vksj A7,d o`ùkkdkj est ds pkjks vksj csbs gsa vksj lhkh dk eq[k dsunz ds ckgj dh vksj gsa A1, A3 ds cka;s ls nwljk vksj A3, A6 ds Bhd cka;s gsa A1, A5 ds cka;s ls rhljk gsa A2, A4 vksj A5 ds chp gsa 24. fueu esa ls dksu&lk xyr gs\ (1) A1, A5 ds nka;s ls pksfkk gsa (2) A7, A4 ds Bhd nka;s gsa (3) A6, A4 ds nka;s ls rhljk gsa (4) A2, A4 ds Bhd cka;s gsa 25. fueu esa ls dksu&lk lr; gs\ (1) A3, A2 ds cka;s ls pksfkk gsa (2) A1, A7 ds Bhd nka;s gsa (3) A4, A5 ds cka;s ls nwljk gsa (4) A 2, A 7 ds nka;s ls nwljk gsa 26. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu ls ;qxe esa igyk O;fDr] nwljs O;fDr ds Bhd cka;s csbk gs\ (1) A2 A5 (2) A3 A1 (3) A7 A4 (4) A4 A7 27. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu ckdh nks O;fDr;ksa ds eè; csbk gs\ (1) A6 A3 A1 (2) A5 A6 A4 (3) A4 A5 A3 (4) A4 A7 A1 funsz'k (28-29) : fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dk è;kuiwozd vè;;u djas rfkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nhft,a,d fuf'pr dwv Hkk"kk esa the company struck among dk dwv Z6X F2G H4Z L5H gsa under that relevant part dk dwv U3G U3K U7I S4F gsa For extreme year date dk dwv F6V F3W T4B S2V gsa 28. fn, x, dwv esa Refuses dk dwv D;k gs\ (1) T6I (2) X6I (3) T5I (4) T6A 29. fn, x, dwv esa Oxford dk dwv D;k gs\ (1) E8L (2) Q5L (3) E5L (4) E5J Ph: ,

6 16. G ranks nineteenth in a class. What is his rank from the last? I. There are 48 students in the class. II. J who ranks 11th in the same class, ranks 38th from the last. 17. R, K, T and S are four friends. Which of the following is the oldest among them? I. The total age of K and T together is more than that of S. II. The total age of R and K together is less than that of S. 18. Among four players M, N, O and P are playing card. Who is O s partner? I. P is sitting opposite to N. II. N is sitting right of M and left of O. 19. What is Punit s age? I. Punit, Vipul and Komal are all of the same age. II. Total age of Vipul, Komal and Anup is 32 and Anup is as old as Vipul and Komal together. 20. A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row. B is between A and E. Who among of them is in the middle? I. A is immediate left of B and immediate right of D. II. C is at the right end. Direction (21-23): Study the following information and answer the given question. * is sister of #. # is married to &. & is son of $. * is the mother is the father of. has only one son and only one daughter. is the daughter of *. is the son of #. 21. How & related to *? (1) Brother (2) Brother in law (3) Cousin (4) Uncle (5) Cannot be determined 22. related to #? (1) Son (2) Niece (3) Son in law (4) Nephew (5) Daughter 23. If $ is wife of % then how is related to %? (1) Son in law (2) Grandson (3) Nephew (4) Son (5) Cannot be determined Direction (24 27): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions. Seven people A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6 and A7 are sitting in around a circle and are facing towards the outside of the centre. A7 is the second to the left of A3, who is to the immediate left of A6. A1 is third to the left of A5. A2 is between A4 and A Which of the following is false? (1) A1 is fourth to the right of A5 (2) A7 is to immediate right of A4 (3) A6 is third to the right of A4 (4) A2 is to immediate left of A4 25. Which of the following is true? (1) A3 is fourth to the left of A2 (2) A1 is to immediate right of A7 (3) A4 is second to the left of A5 (4) A2 is second to the right of A7 26. Which of the following pair has the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person? (1) A2 A5 (2) A3 A1 (3) A7 A4 (4) A4 A7 27. Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the remaining two? (1) A6 A3 A1 (2) A5 A6 A4 (3) A4 A5 A3 (4) A4 A7 A1 Direction (28-29): Study the nformation and answer the following questions. In a certain code language the company struck among is coded as Z6X F2G H4Z L5H. Under that relevant part is coded as U3G U3K U7I S4F. For extreme years date is coded as F6V F3W T4B S2V. 28. What is the code for Refuses in the given code language? (1) T6I (2) X6I (3) T5I (4) T6A 29. What is the code for oxford in the given code language? (1) E8L (2) Q5L (3) E5L (4) E5J Ph: ,

7 funs Z'k (30-34) : fueufyf[kr tkudkjh dk è;kuiwozd vè;;u djas rfkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nhft,a lkr fødsv f[kykm+h ;Fkk% dksgyh] /ou] jgk.ks] flefk] okuzj] fiqap vksj dsnkj tkno lirkg esa lkr vyx&vyx esp [ksyrs gsa tks lkseokj ls 'kq: vksj jfookj dks lekir gksrk gsa lkr espksa esa lkr vyx&vyx ju& 51] 5] 4] 16] 9] 6 vksj 26 gsa fiqap xq:okj dks [ksyrk gsa f[kykm+h fiqap vksj dksgyh ds }kjk [ksys x, esapksa ds chp nks esp [ksys x,a lirkg ds igys fnu esp [ksyus okyk cyysckt v¼z'krd cukrk gsa dsnkj tkno vksj /ou ds juksa dk ;ksx] flefk ds ju ds cjkcj gsa f[kykm+h okuzj vksj flefk }kjk [ksys x, espksa ds chp,d esp [ksyk x;k gsa og cyysckt tks xq:okj dks esp [ksyrk gs] mldk ju 'kfuokj dks esp [ksyus okys cyysckt ds ju dk iw.kz oxz gsa okuzj }kjk [ksyk x;k esp] fiqap ds }kjk [ksys x, esp ds Bhd igys ;k Bhd ckn ugha gsa jgk.ks }kjk [ksyk x;k esp] dsnkj tkno }kjk [ksys x, esp ds fnu ds Bhd igys gs vksj jgk.ks us 26 ju cuk;sa flefk ds }kjk [ksyk x;k esap] /ou ds }kjk [ksys x, esp ds ckn ugha gsa 30. fn, x, O;oLFkk ds vuqlkj fueu esa ls dksu ls ;qxe esa 10 ju ds Åij ju cukus okys cyysckt dk izfrfuf/ro djrk gs\ (1) okuzj] fiqap (2) fiqap] dksgyh] jgk.ks (3) fiqap] dsnkj tkno] jgk.ks (4) dksgyh] okuzj 31. fn, x, O;oLFk ds vuqlkj fueu esa ls dksu dsnkj tkno vksj flefk ds chp [ksyus okys cyysckt dk izfrfuf/ro djrk gs\ (1) fiqap (2) dksgyh (3) jgk.ks (4) /ou (5) okuzj 32. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu 9 ju cukrk gs\ (1) okuzj (2) dksgyh (3) jgk.ks (4) /ou 33. fueufyf[kr fn, x, O;oLFkk esa ls dksu ;qxe lgh lqesfyr gs\ (1) lkseokj & dksgyh (2) eaxyokj & dsnkj tkno (3) cq/okj & /ou (4) xq:okj & flefk (5) 'kqøokj & okuzj 34. fueu esa ls dksu v¼z'krd cukrk gs\ (1) dksgyh (2) fiqap (3) /ou (4) dsnkj tkno (5) okuzj 35. ym+fd;ksa dh,d iafdr es a] A cka;s vafre Nksj ls 16oka gs vksj B nka;s vafre Nksj ls 24oka gsa ;fn og,d nwljs ls LFkku cnyrs gs rks A dk LFkku cka;s vafre Nksj ls 19oka gks tkrk gsa iafdr esa dqy fdruh ym+fd;ka gsa\ (1) 41 (2) 42 (3) 35 (4) 39 funsz'k (36 40) : fueu iz'u esa N% dfku,oa mlds ckn ikap fu"d"kz fn, x, gasa vkidks bu lhkh dfkuksa dks lr; ekuuk gs] Hkys gh oks lozkkr rf;ksa ls fhkuu izrhr gksrs gsa lhkh fu"d"kks± dks i<+s fiqj r; djsa fd lhkh dfkuksa dks fueufyf[kr dksu lk fu"d"kz rkfdzd :i ls vuqlj.k ugha djrk gsa 36. dfku % dqn i{kh ism+ gsa lhkh ism+ taxy gsa dksbz Hkh ism+ O;fDr ugha gsa lhkh O;fDr ok;q gsa dqn O;fDr xk; gsa dksbz Hkh xk; 'ksj ugha gsa fu"d"kz % (1) dqn i{kh taxy gsa (2) dqn i{kh O;fDr ugha gsa (3) lhkh i{kh ds 'ksj gksus dh lahkkouk gsa (4) lhkh xk; ds ism+ gksus dh lahkkouk gsa (5) dqn taxy O;fDr ugha gsa 37. dfku % lhkh pkan rkjs gsa lhkh rkjs izdk'k gsa dqn izdk'k irfkj gsa dqn irfkj uhyk gsa dksbz Hkh uhyk irax ugha gsa lhkh irax e'khu gsa fu"d"kz % (1) lhkh pkan ds irfkj gksus dh lahkkouk gsa (2) lhkh pkan ds uhys gksus dh lahkkouk gsa (3) dqn irfkj irax ugha gsa (4) lhkh uhys ds e'khu gksus dh lahkkouk gsa (5) lhkh irfkj ds irax gksus dh lahkkouk gsa Ph: ,

8 Direction (30 34): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. Seven cricket players viz, Kohli, Dhawan, Rahane, Smith, Warner, Finch and Kedar Jadav played in seven different matches in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Their Run in the seven different matches is 51, 5, 4, 16, 9, 6 and 26. Finch plays on Thursday. Two matches are played between the matches played by player Finch and player Kohli. On the first day of the week, the batsman scored half century played in the match. The sum of Runs of the player Kedar Jadav and Dhawan is equalled to the Runs of Smith. Only one match is played between the matches played by the player Warner and Smith. The score of the batsman who played the match on Thursday is the perfect square of the score of the player who played on Saturday. The match played by Warner is not played on the day immediately before or immediately after the day when the match of player Finch is played. The match played by Rahane on the day immediately before the day when the match played by Kedar Jadav and scores 26 runs. Match played by Smith is not played after the match of player Dhawan. 30. As per the given arrangement which of the following combination represents the batsman who are score above the 10 runs? (1) Warner, Finch (2) Finch, Kohli, Rahane (3) Finch, Kedar Jadav, Rahane (4) Kohli, Warner 31. As per the given arrangement which of the following persons represent the one who was played in between the Kedar Jadav and Smith? (1) Finch (2) Kohli (3) Rahane (4) Dhawan (5) Warner 32. Who among the following scores 9 runs? (1) Warner (2) Kohli (3) Rahane (4) Dhawan 33. Which of the following combinations is correct as per the given arrangement? (1) Monday Kohli (2) Tuesday Kedar Jadav (3) Wednesday Dhawan (4) Thursday Smith (5) Friday Warner 34. Who amongst the following scored half century? (1) Kohli (2) Finch (3) Dhawan (4) Kedar Jadav (5) Warner 35. In a row of girls, A is 16 th from the left end and B is 24 th from the right end. If they are interchanging their positions, then A becomes 19 th from the left end. Then how many total girls in the row? (1) 41 (2) 42 (3) 35 (4) 39 Direction (36-40): Following question consists of six statements followed by five conclusions. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions does not logically follow from the given statements using all statements together. 36. Statements: Some bird are tree. All tree are forest. No tree is man. All man are air. Some man are cow. No cow is lion. Conclusions: (1) Some bird are forest. (2) Some bird are not man. (3) All bird being lion is a possibility. (4) All cow being tree is a possibility. (5) Some forest are not man 37. Statements: All moon are star. All star are light. Some light are stone. Some stone is blue. No blue is kite. All kite are machine. Conclusions: (1) All moon being stone is a possibility. (2) All moon being blue is a possibility. (3) Some stone are not kite. (4) All blue being machine is a possibility. (5) All stone being kite is a possibility. Ph: ,

9 38. dfku % dqn O;fDr ds'k gsa dksbz Hkh ds'k cpps ugha gsa lhkh gkfk cpps gsa dksbz Hkh gkfk vka[k ugha gsa dqn vka[k ukd gsa lhkh ukd dksguh gsa fu"d"kz % (1) dksb Hkh ds'k gkfk ugha gsa (2) dqn O;fDr cpps ugha gsa (3) dqn ukd gkfk ugha gsa (4) dqn vka[k dksguh gsa (5) lhkh O;fDr ds cpps gksus dh lahkkouk gsa 39. dfku % lhkh xfy;ka gjs gsa dqn gjs 'kgj gsa lhkh 'kgj ism+ gsa dksbz Hkh 'kgj 'ksj ugha gsa lhkh eksckby 'ksj gsa dqn eksckby usvodz gsa fu"d"kz % (1) dqn ism+ gjs gsa (2) dqn usvodz 'ksj gsa (3) dqn ism+ 'ksj ugha gsa (4) dqn gjs 'ksj ugha gsa (5) dqn xfy;ka 'kgj gsa 40. dfku % lhkh le;?km+h gsa dqn le; feuv gsa lhkh feuv irfkj gsa dksbz Hkh irfkj njoktk ugha gsa lhkh njokts dkj gsa dksbz Hkh dkj cl ugha gsa fu"d"kz % (1) dqn le; irfkj gsa (2) lhkh?km+h irfkj gsa (3) dksbz Hkh feuv njokts ugha gsa (4) dqn dkj cl ugha gsa (5) dqn irfkj dkj ugha gsa Ph: ,

10 38. Statements: Some man are hair. No hair is child. All hand are child. No hand is eye. Some eye are nose. All nose are elbow. Conclusions: (1) No hair is hand. (2) Some man are not child. (3) Some nose are not hand. (4) Some eye are elbow. (5) All man being child is a possibility. 39. Statements: All street are green. Some green are city. All city are tree. No city is Lion. All mobile are lion. Some mobile are network. Conclusions: (1) Some tree are green (2) Some network are lion (3) Some tree are not lion (4) Some green are not lion (5) Some Street are city 40. Statements: All time are clock. Some time are minute. All minute are stone. No stone is door. All door are car. No car is bus. Conclusions: (1) Some time are stone. (2) Some clock are stone. (3) No minute is door. (4) Some car are not bus. (5) Some stone are not car. Ph: ,

11 la[;kred vfhk;ksx;rk funsz'k (41 45) : fueufyf[kr iz'ukas esa iz'u fpug (?) osq LFkku ij yxhkx D;k eku vkuk pkfg,\ (vkidks ;FkkFkZ eku dh x.kuk djuk vko';d ugha gs) dk 41% =? 910 dk 77% (1) 800 (2) 500 (3) 700 (4) 600 (5) (41.33) 2 + (7.96) 2 (22.02) 2 =? (1) 1280 (2) 1440 (3) 1580 (4) 1540 (5) dk 29.8% dk 60.01% =? (1) 450 (2) 320 (3) 210 (4) 280 (5) =? (1) 149 (2) 147 (3) 159 (4) dk 35% 520 dk 35% =? (1) 78 (2) 71 (3) 75 (4) 77 funsz'k (46 50) : fueu n.m vkjs[k dk è;kuiwozd vè;;u djsa rfkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nsaa n.m vkjs[k fofhkuu o"kkzsa esa rhu daifu;ksa ds }kjk csps x, ysivkwiksa dh la[;kvksa dks n'kkzrk gsa ysivkwi dh la[;k (gtkj esa) daiuh P daiuh Q daiuh R o"kz 46. lhkh o"kksza esa daiuh P ds }kjk csps x, 25» ysivkwi [kjkc gs] rks lhkh o"kkz sa esa daiuh P ds }kjk csps x, fdrus ysivkwi Bhd gs\ (1) 1,4,0000 (2) 14,000 (3) 1,8,0000 (4) 18, o"kz 2008 esa],d ysivkwi dk foø;ewy; ` 12]000 gs] rks mlh o"kz daiuh R dk dqy foø;ewy; D;k gs\ (1) ` 40 djksm+ (2) ` 52 djksm+ (3) ` 5.2 djksm+ (4) ` 4 djksm+ 48. o"kz 2008 esa daiuh R ds }kjk csps x, ysivkwi esa] finys o"kz dh rqyuk esa fdrus izfr'kr dh o`f¼ gqbz gs\ (1) 40% (2) 45% (3) 30% (4) 35% 49. lhkh o"kksza esa daiuh Q ds }kjk csps x, vkslr ysivkwiksa dh la[;k yxhkx D;k gs\ (1) (2) (3) (4) o"kz 2006 esa daiuh Q ds }kjk csps x, ysivkwiksa dh la[;k rfkk o"kz 2005 esa daiuh P ds }kjk csps x, ysivkwiksa dh la[;kvksa ds chp vuqikr D;k gs\ (1) 5 : 4 (2) 9 : 5 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 9 : 7 funs Z'k (51 55) : fueu la[;k J`a[kyk iz'u fpug (\) ds LFkku ij D;k vk,xk\ ? 178 (1) 51 (2) 49 (3) 53 (4) ? 371 (1) 128 (2) 125 (3) 133 (4) 129 (5) ? (1) 57 (2) 62 (3) 67 (4) 58 Ph: ,

12 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Direction (41-45): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) % of =? 77% of 910 (1) 800 (2) 500 (3) 700 (4) 600 (5) (41.33) 2 + (7.96) 2 (22.02) 2 =? (1) 1280 (2) 1440 (3) 1580 (4) 1540 (5) % of % of =? (1) 450 (2) 320 (3) 210 (4) 280 (5) =? (1) 149 (2) 147 (3) 159 (4) % of % of 520 =? (1) 78 (2) 71 (3) 75 (4) 77 Direction (46-50): Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the given questions. Bar graph shows the number of Laptops sold by three companies in different years. Number of Laptop (in thousand) Company P Company Q Company R Year % Laptops are defective which are sold by Company P in all the years, then how many good Laptops are sold by Company P in all years? (1) 1,40,000 (2) 14,000 (3) 1,80,000 (4) 18, In the year 2008, the selling price of one Laptops is `12,000, then what is the total selling price of Company R in this year? (1) ` 40 crore (2) ` 52 crore (3) ` 5.2 crore (4) ` 4 crore 48. What is the percentage increase of manufactured Laptops by Company R in the year 2008 compared to the previous years? (1) 40% (2) 45 (3) 30% (4) What is the approximate average number manufactured Laptops by Company Q in all years? (1) (2) (3) (4) What is the ratio between the number of Laptops sold by Company Q in the year 2006 and the number of Laptops sold by Company P in the year 2005? (1) 5 : 4 (2) 9 : 5 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 9 : 7 Direction (51-55): What will come in place of (?) in following series? ? 178 (1) 51 (2) 49 (3) 53 (4) ? 371 (1) 128 (2) 125 (3) 133 (4) 129 (5) ? (1) 57 (2) 62 (3) 67 (4) 58 Ph: ,

13 ? 1094 (1) 361 (2) 327 (3) 365 (4) 348 (5) ? 67.5 (1) 21 (2) 34 (3) 41 (4) 27 (5) O;fDr,d dk;z dks 3 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrk gs] 10 cpps mlh dk;z dks 9 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrk gs rfkk 7 efgyk,a vk/s dk;z dks 5 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrh gsa ;fn 5 O;fDr rfkk 5 cppsa, d l kfkd fnuksa ds fy, dk;z djrs gsa rfkk dk;z NksM+ nsrs gs aa 'ks"k dk;z dks iwjk djus ds fy, 7 efgyk,a 3 fnuksa ds fy, dk;z djrh gs rfkk rc 11 cppsa tks 3 fnuksa esa 'ks"k dk;z dks iwjk djrs gsa] efgyk,a ds LFkku ij dk;z djrs gsaa d dk eku D;k gs\ (1) 4 fnu (2) 2 fnu (3) 5 fnu (4) 10 fnu 57.,d O;fDr 56 yhvj nw/ rfkk ikuh ds fej.k dks ftlesa nw/ rfkk ikuh ds chp vuqikr 5 % 2 gsa og 21 yhvj nw/ rfkk ikuh ds fej.k dks 3 % 2 % 2 ds vuqikr esa nw/] ikuh rfkk 'kgn ds fej.k ls cny nsrk gsa rc og u, cus fej.k dks,d crzu esa Mkyrk gs ftles a dqn ikuh rfkk 'kgn dk fej.k gs tks x : y ds vuqikr esa gsa ;fn nw/] ikuh rfkk 'kgn dk vafre vuqikr 17 % 9 % 4 gs] rks x : y dk eku D;k gs\ (1) 7 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 3 : jke rfkk lksuw,d lk>k O;kikj esa Øe'k% ` 30]000 rfkk ` 25]000 fuos'k djrs gsa ikap eghus ckn] lquhy muds lkfk ` 12]000 ds lkfk 'kkfey gks tkrk gsa O;kikj izkjahk ds 10 eghus ds var esa dqy ykhk esa lksuw dk fgllk ` 15]000 gs] rks ykhk esa lquhy dk fgllk Kkr djsaa (1) ` 3,500 (2) ` 3,600 (3) ` 4,200 (4) ` 4, ` 21]500 dh jkf'k ij,d fuf'pr nj ls rhu o"kksza ds var esa izkir pøo`f¼ C;kt ` 7]116-5 gsa leku le; esa leku nj ij mlh jkf'k ij izkir lk/kj.k C;kt D;k gksxk\ (1) ` 6,350 (2) ` 6,450 (3) ` 6,250 (4) ` 6, ,d O;fDr 18 feuv esa /kjk dh fn'kk esa 10-2 fdeh- ;k=kk djrk gsa ;fn /kjk dh pky 3-5 fdeh-@?kavk gs] rks /kjk ds foijhr fn'kk esa fdeh- ;k=kk djus esa fdruk le; yxsxk\ (1) 3.5?kaVs (2) 4.5?kaVs (3) 5.5?kaVs (4) 6.5?kaVs funsz'k (61 65) : fueu rkfydk dk è;kuiwozd vè;;u djsa rfkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nsaa rkfydk N% cyyscktksa ls lacaf/r vkdm+s dks n'kkzrk gsa P Q R S T U Ph: , (i) LVªkbZd jsv = cuk, x, dyq ju [kys s x, dyq xan s (ii) lhkh cyysckt muds }kjk [ksys x, espksa esa cyysckth djrk gsa (iii) rkfydk esa dqn eku yqir gsa Nk=k ls meehn dh tkrh gs fd og yqir eku dh x.kuk djsa] ;fn ;g fn, x, vakdm+s rfkk tkudkjh ds vk/kj ij iz'uksa dk mùkj nsus ds fy, vko';d gsa 61. VwukZesUV esa R rfkk T ds }kjk [ksys x, xsanksa dh la[;kvksa ds chp vuqikr 5 % 3 gsa VwukZesUV esa T ds }kjk cuk, x, ju] VwukZesUV esa R ds }kjk cuk, x, dqy juksa fdruk izfr'kr de gs\ (1) (3) % (2) % (4) % %

14 ? 1094 (1) 361 (2) 327 (3) 365 (4) 348 (5) ? 67.5 (1) 21 (2) 34 (3) 41 (4) 27 (5) men can complete a work in 3 days, 10 children can complete the same work in 9 days and 7 women can complete the half of the work in 5 days. If 5 men and 5 children started the work and worked for d days and left the work. To complete the remaining work, 7 women worked for 3 days and then they were replaced by 11 children who worked for 3 days to complete the remaining work. What is value of d? (1) 4 days (2) 2 days (3) 5 days (4) 10 days 57. A man sells 56 litre milk and water mixture where the ratio between milk and water is 5 : 2. He replaces 21 litre milk and water mixture with a 3 : 2 : 2 milk and water and honey mixture. Then he pours the newly formed mixture completely in a container that contains some water and honey mixture where the ratio between water and honey is x : y. If the final ratio between milk, water and honey is 17 : 9 : 4, then what is the value of x : y? (1) 7 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 3 : Ram and Sonu started a business in partnership investing ` 30,000 and ` 25,000 respectively. After five months, Sunil joined them with `12,000. If Sonu s share in total profit is ` 15,000 at the end of 10 months from the starting of the business, then find the share of Sunil in profit. (1) ` 3,500 (2) ` 3,600 (3) ` 4,200 (4) ` 4, The compound interest accrued on an amount of ` 21,500 at a certain rate of interest at the end of three years is ` 7, What would be the simple interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period? (1) ` 6,350 (2) ` 6,450 (3) ` 6,250 (4) ` 6, A man can row 10.2 km downstream in 18 minutes. If the speed of the stream is 3.5 kmph then how much time he would take to cover km upstream? (1) 3.5 hours (2) 4.5 hours (3) 5.5 hours (4) 6.5 hours Direction (61-65): Study the following table carefully and answer the given questions. The table shows the data related to six batsman P Q R S T U Ph: , (i) Strike rate = Total runs scored Total balls faced 100 (ii) All the given batsmen could bat in all the given matches played by them (iii) Few values are missing in the table. A candidate is expected to calculated the missing value, if it is required to answer the given questions, on the basis of the given data and information. 61. The respective ratio between total number of balls faced by R and T in the tournament is 5 : 3. Total number of runs scored by T in the tournament is what percent less than the total number of runs scored by R in the tournament? (1) (3) % (2) % (4) % %

15 a 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI P ds }kjk igys 11 espksa esa [ksys x, xsanksa dh la[;k rfkk vafre 9 espksa esa [ksys x, xsanksa dh la[;k leku gsa ;fn igys 11 espksa rfkk vafre 9 espksa esa mldk LVªkbZd jsv Øe'k% 79 rfkk 61 gs] rks VwukZesUV esa mlds }kjk [ksys x, xsanksa dh la[;k D;k gs\ (1) 1120 (2) 880 (3) 800 (4) VwukZesUV esa] Q ds }kjk [ksysa x, xsanksa dh dqy la[;k] mlds }kjk cuk, x, juksa dh la[;k ls 432 de gsa VwukZesUV esa Q ds }kjk cuk, x, vkslr juksa dh la[;k D;k gs\ (1) 64.8 (2) 72.8 (3) 52.8 (4) VwukZesUV esa U dk LVªkbZd jsv D;k gs\ (1) (2) (3) (4) ;g fn;k x;k gs fd VwukZesUV esa S ds }kjk [ksys x, espksa dh la[;k Kkr djsa ;fn VwukZesUV esa S ds }kjk [ksys x, xsanksa dh la[;k] U ds }kjk [ksysa x, xsanksa dh la[;k dk 75» gsa (1) 24 (2) 21 (3) 19 (4) 18 (5) fu/kzfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk funsz'k (66-70) : uhps fn, x, izr;sd iz'u esa,d iz'u vksj mlds uhps nks dfku I vksj II fn, x, gsaa vkidks ;g r; djuk gs fd dfkuksa esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs ;k ugha A nksuks a dfkuks a dks if<+, vksj mùkj nhft,a (1) ;fn dsoy dfku I esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs] tcfd dsoy dfku II esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir ugha gsa (2) ;fn dsoy dfku II esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gs] tcfd dsoy dfku I esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir ugha gsa (3) ;fn ;k rks dsoy dfku I ;k dsoy dfku II esa fn;s x;s vkadm+s iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir gsa (4) ;fn dfku I vksj dfku II nksuksa dss vkadm+s feykdj Hkh iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, i;kzir ugha gsa (5) ;fn dfku I vksj dfku II nksuksa ds vkadm+s feydj iz'u dk mùkj nsus ds fy, vko';d gsa 66.,d fuf'pr pky ls py jgh igyh jsyxkm+h] fuf'pr pky ls foijhr fn'kk esa py jgh nwljh jsyxkm+h dks 12 lsd.m+ esa ikj dj tkrh gsa nwljh jsyxkm+h dh yeckbz D;k gs\ I. nksuksa jsyxkm+h dh yeckbz,d lkfk 450 ehvj gsa II. igyh jsyxkm+h dh pky] nwljh jsyxkm+h ls de gsa 67. vk;r dk {ks=kiqy] ledks.k f=khkqt ds {ks=kiqy ds cjkcj gsa vk;r dh yeckbz D;k gs\ I. f=khkqt dk vk/kj 40 lseh- gsa II. f=khkqt dh ÅapkbZ 50 lseh- gsa 68. rhu o"kksza ds ckn dqy pøo`f¼ C;kt D;k gksxk\ I.,d o"kz ckn C;kt ` 100 gs rfkk jkf'k `1000 gsa II. nks o"kkszsa ds var esa `1000 dh jkf'k ij lk/kj.k C;kt rfkk pøo`f¼ C;kt ds chp varj `10 gsa 69. nks vadksa dh la[;k D;k gs ftlesa bdkbz vad NksVh gs\ I. nks vadksa ds chp varj 5 gsa II. nks vadksa dk ;ksx 7 gsa 70. 'kkar ty esa uko dh pky D;k gs\ I. /kjk dh fn'kk esa,d LFkku ls nwljs LFkku tkus esa 2?kaVs dk le; yxrk gsa II. /kjk ds foijhr mlh,d LFkku ls nwljs LFkku tkus esa 4?kaVs dk le; yxrk gsa funsz'k (7175) : fueu rkfydk dk è;kuiwozd vè;;u djsa rfkk fn, x, iz'uksa ds mùkj nsaa rkfydk fofhkuu lalfkkvks a es a fofhkuu fohkkxks a es a dk;zjr dezpkfj;ks dh la[;kvksa dks n'kkzrk gsa fohkkx,p vkj foùk foi.ku mriknu ys[kk dkuwu A B lalfkk C D E dkuwu fohkkx esa dk;zjr dezpkfj;ksa dh dqy la[;k] lhkh lalfkkvksa esa,d lkfk,p vkj fohkkx esa dk;zjr dezpkfj;ksa dh dqy la[;kvksa dk yxhkx fdruk izfr'kr gs\ (1) 4% (2) 8% (3) 12% (4) 6% 72. lhkh lalfkkvksa ls,d lkfk foi.ku rfkk mriknu fohkkx esa dk;zjr dezpkfj;ksa dh la[;kvksa ds vkslr ds chp varj yxhkx D;k gs\ (1) 578 (2) 231 (3) 330 (4) 1156 Ph: ,

16 62. P faced equal number of balls in first 11 matches he played in the tournament and last 9 matches he played in the tournament. If his strike rate is first 11 matches and last 9 matches of the tournament are 79 and 61 respectively, then what is the total number of balls faced by him in the tournament? (1) 1120 (2) 880 (3) 800 (4) In the tournament, the total number of balls faced by Q is 432 less than the total number of runs scored by him. What is the average number of runs scored by Q in the tournament? (1) 64.8 (2) 72.8 (3) 52.8 (4) 71.8 (5) What is the strike rate of U in the tournament? (1) (2) (3) (4) Find the number of matches played by S in the tournament if it is given that total number of ball faced by S in the tournament is equal to the 75% of ball faced by U. (1) 24 (2) 21 (3) 19 (4) 18 (5) cannot be determined Direction (66-70): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the question and both the statements and give answer. (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to ansswer the question. (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) if the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 66. First train is running at a certain speed crosses second train running at a certain speed in the opposite direction in 12 seconds. What is the length of second train? I. The length of both the trains together is 450 metres. II. First Train is slower than second train. 67. Area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a right angled triangle. What is the length of the rectangle? I. The base of the triangle is 40 cms. II. The height of the triangle is 50 cms. 68. What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years? I. The interest after one year was `100 and the sum was `1,000. Ph: , II. The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of ` 1,000 at the end of two years was ` What is the two digit number where the digit at the unit place is smaller? I. The difference between the two digits is 5. II. The sum of the two digits is What is the speed of the boat in still water? I. It takes 2 hours to cover distance between first palce to second place downstream. II. It takes 4 hours to cover the same distance in upstream. Direction (7175) : Study the following table carefully and answer the given questions. Table shows the number of employees working in various departments in various organizations. HR Finance Marketing Production Account Legal A Organizations C B D E The total number of employees working in the Legal department are approximately what percent of the total number of employees working in HR department of all the organizations together? (1) 4% (2) 8% (3) 12% (4) 6% 72. What is the approximate difference between the average number of employees working in Marketing and Production departments in all the organization together? (1) 578 (2) 231 (3) 330 (4) 1156

17 73. lalfkk A esaa dk;zjr dezpkfj;ksa dh dqy la[;k rfkk lalfkk E esa dk;zjr dezpkfj;ksa dh dqy la[;kvks a ds chp vuqikr D;k gs\ (1) 225 : 233 (2) 71 : 75 (3) 75 : 71 (4) 233 : lhkh lalfkkvksa esa,d lkfk lhkh fohkkxksa esa dk;zjr dezpkkfj;ksa dh dqy la[;k D;k gs\ (1) (2) (3) (4) lalfkk B es a foùk fohkkx esa dk;zjr dezpkkfj;ksa dh la[;k] lalfkk B esa dk;zjr dezpkfj;ksa dh dqy la[;kvksa dk yxhkx fdruk izfr'kr gs\ (1) 12% (2) 15% (3) 20% (4) 17% funsz'k (7680) : fueufyf[kr iz'uksa esa nks lehdj.k I rfkk II fn;s x, gsaa lehdj.kksa dks gy djsa rfkk iz'uksa osq mùkj nsaa mùkj nsa ;fn (1) x > y (2) x y (3) x < y (4) x y (5) x = y ;k lacaèk LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk gsa 76. I. 1.5x 2 21x + 72 = 0 II. 2y = 10y 77. I. x 2 + 9x + 20 = 0 II. 3y y + 36 = I. x 2 = 784 II. y = I. 4x x = 168 II. y y + 63 = I. 6x + 3y = 24 II. x + 2y = 8.5 Ph: ,

18 73. What is the respective ratio between the total number of employees working in organization A and the total number of employees working in organizations E? (1) 225 : 233 (2) 71 : 75 (3) 75 : 71 (4) 233 : What is the total number of employees from all the departments working in all the organizations together? (1) (2) (3) (4) The number of employees working in the Finance department in organization B are approximately what percent of the total number of employees working in organization B? (1) 12% (2) 15% (3) 20% (4) 17% Direction (76 80) : In the following question two equations I and II are given. Solve the equations and answer the questions. Give Answer if (1) x > y (2) x y (3) x < y (4) x y (5) x = y or relation between x and y cannot be established. 76. I. 1.5x 2 21x + 72 = 0 II. 2y = 10y 77. I. x 2 + 9x + 20 = 0 II. 3y y + 36 = I. x 2 = 784 II. y = I. 4x x = 168 II. y y + 63 = I. 6x + 3y = 24 II. x + 2y = 8.5 Ph: ,

19 81. jsyos cksmz ds uo fu;qdr vè;{k dk uke crkb,a (1) jtuh'k dqekj (2) v'kksd Jhd`".k (3) foosd y[kkuh (4) vf'ouh yksgkuh (5) eukst uk;j 82. gky gh esa tkjh gq, ^lkaph Lrwi* dh vkd`fr dks izlrqr djus okyk csad uksv gs& (1) ` 50 (2) ` 200 lkeku; lpsrrk (3) ` 500 (4) ` 1000 (5) ` fueu esa ls fdl csad us v{k; dqekj }kjk 'kq: rfkk jk"vªh; lwpuk fokku dsunz }kjk leffkzr iksvzy ^Hkkjr ds ohj* dks lapkfyr fd;k gs\ (1) csad vkwiq bafm;k (2) bafm;u csad (3) dsujk csad (4) iatkc us'kuy csad (5) Hkkjrh; LVsV csad 84. dsunzh; fiqye izek.ku cksmz (lh-ch-,iq-lh-) ds vè;{k dksu gs a\ (1) lq'khy panz (2) tkosn v[rj (3) izlwu tks'kh (4) 'kfezyk VSxksj (5) igykt fugykuh 85. mrdy xzkeh.k csad ds izk;kstd csad dk uke crkb,a (1) Hkkjrh; LVsV csad (2) bafm;u csad (3) nsuk csad (4) flafmdsv cs ad (5) lsavªy csad vkwiq bafm;k 86. fdlkuksa ds nqxquh vk; ds fy, xfbr lfefr dk uke crkb,a ftlus gky gh esa viuh fjiksvz izlrqr dh gsa (1) fccsd nsojkw; lfefr (2) lq'khy eksnh lfefr (3) v:.k tsvyh lfefr (4) v'kksd nyokbz lfefr (5) oh- dedksrh lfefr 87. fueu esa ls fdl jkt; ljdkj us ^uekeh xaxs tkx`fr ;k=kk* uked tkx:drk vfhk;ku dh 'kq:vkr dh gs\ (1) mùkjk[kam ljdkj (2) mùkj izns'k ljdkj (3) fcgkj ljdkj (4) eè; izns'k ljdkj 88. Hkkjrh; fj koz csad dh eksfnzd uhfr dh njksa ds (pksfks f}ekfld eksfnzd uhfr ds vuqlkj) fueufyf[kr ;qxeksa dk vè;;u djsa vksj xyr lqesfyr ;qxe dk p;u djsa & uhfr o fjtoz njsa izfr'kr (1) jsiks nj 6.00% (2) csad nj 6.25% (3) fjolz jsiks nj 5.50% (4),e-,l-,iQ- nj 6.25% (5) lh-vkj-vkj- 4.00% 89. Hkkjrh; fj koz csad }kjk gky gh esa fueu esa ls fdl csad dks?kjsyw iz.kkyhxr egroiw.kz csadksa (DSIBs) dh Js.kh esa lfeefyr fd;k x;k gs\ (1) ;l csad (2),p-Mh-,iQ-lh cs ad (3),fDll csad (4) vkbz-lh-vkbz-lh-vkbz- csad (5) bamlbam csad 90. fueufyf[kr varjkz"vªh; laxbuksa esa ls fdldk lnl; Hkkjr ugha gs a\ (1) MIGA (2) BIS (3) AIIB (4) IDA (5) ICSID 91. fueufyf[kr fyfevsm daifu;ksa esa ls fdl daiuh dks Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk uojru daiuh dk ntkz ugha izkir gs\ (1) Hkkjr bysdvªkwfudl fyfevsm (2) bafm;u vkw;y dkwiksjs'ku fyfevsm (3) fganqlrku,;jksukwfvdl fyfevsm (4) Hkkjrh; uksokgu fuxe fyfevsm (5) jk"vªh; blikr fuxe fyfevsm 92. ih-,iq-vkj-mh-,- us jk"vªh; isa'ku ;kstuk ds varxzr tqm+us ds fy, 60 o"kz ds c<+k dj vf/dre lhek dj nh gs& (1) 62 o"kz (2) 65 o"kz (3) 68 o"kz (4) 70 o"kz (5) 75 o"kz 93. fdl o"kz Hkkjrh; jk"vªh; Hkqxrku fuxe dh LFkkiuk dh xbz Fkh\ (1) o"kz 2000 (2) o"kz 2002 (3) o"kz 2006 (4) o"kz 2008 (5) o"kz Hkkjr dk igyk gkbijywi izkstsdv rs;kj gksxk& (1) dsjy esa (2) rfeyukmq esa (3) vka/z izns'k esa (4) dukzvd esa (5) rsyaxkuk esa Ph: ,

20 GENERAL AWARENESS 81. Name of newly appointed Chairman of the Railway Board. (1) Rajnish Kumar (2) Ashok Shrikrishna (3) Vivek Lakhani (4) Ashwani Lohani (5) Manoj Nair 82. The banknote denomination recently introduced bearing the motif of 'Sanchi Stupa' is- (1) ` 50 (2) ` 200 (3) ` 500 (4) ` 1000 (5) ` Which bank has powered the portal 'Bharat ke Veer' started by Akshay Kumar supported by National Informatics Centre (NIC)? (1) Bank of India (2) Indian Bank (3) Canara Bank (4) Punjab National Bank (5) State Bank of India 84. Who is the Chairman of Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)? (1) Sushil Chandra (2) Javed Akhtar (3) Prasoon Joshi (4) Sharmila Tagore (5) Pahlaj Nihlani 85. Name the Sponsor Bank of Utkal Grameen Bank. (1) State Bank of India (2) Indian Bank (3) Dena Bank (4) Syndicate Bank (5) Central Bank of India 86. Name the committee on Doubling Farmers' income, which submitted its report recently. (1) Bibek Debroy Committee (2) Sushil Modi Committee (3) Arun Jaitley Committee (4) Ashok Dalwai Committee (5) V. Kamakoti Committee 87. Which state government has launched an awareness drive called 'Namami Gange Jagriti Yatra'? (1) Uttrakhand Govt. (2) Uttar Pradesh Govt. (3) Bihar Govt. (4) Madhya Pradesh Govt. 88. Study the following pairs of rates of RBI's Monetary Policy (as per fourth Bi-monthly Monetary Policy) and choose the wrongly matched pair: Policy and Reserve rates Percentage (1) Repo Rate 6.00% (2) Bank Rate 6.25% (3) Reverse Repo Rate 5.50% (4) MSF Rate 6.25% (5) CRR 4. 00% 89. Name the bank which is included in Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) by RBI recently. (1) Yes Bank (2) HDFC Bank (3) Axis Bank (4) ICICI Bank (5) IndusInd Bank 90. Among the following international organisations, India is NOT the member of- (1) MIGA (2) BIS (3) AIIB (4) IDA (5) ICSID 91. Which among of the following public limited companies is NOT accorded Navratna status by Govt. of India? (1) Bharat Electronics Ltd. (2) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. (3) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. (4) Shipping Corporation of India Ltd. (5) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. 92. PFRDA has raised the upper age limit for joining the National Pension scheme (NPS) from 60 years to - (1) 62 years (2) 65 years (3) 68 years (4) 70 years (5) 75 years 93. The National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) was founded in the year - (1) 2000 (2) 2002 (3) 2006 (4) 2008 (5) First hyperloop project of India will come up in - (1) Kerala (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Karnataka (5) Telangana Ph: ,

21 95. Hkkjr dk igyk Hkqxrku csad ftlus vius fmftvy IysViQkeZ ij,dhd`r ;w-ih-vkbz- ykap fd;k gs& (1),;jVsy Hkqxrku csad (2) isvh,e Hkqxrku csad (3) bafm;k ikslv Hkqxrku csad (4) fiquks Hkqxrku csad 96. okf.kft;d i=k dks fdl ewy;oxz esa tkjh fd;k tk ldrk gs\ (1) ` 25,000 (2) ` 50,000 (3) ` 1,00,000 (4) ` 5,00, fueu esa ls fdlus ;g vo/kj.kk nh Fkh fd ^cqjk eqnzk vpnh eqnzk dks ifjpyu ls ckgj dj nsrh gs\ (1) jkwcvz fxfiqu (2) FkkWel xzs'ke (3) ts-vkj- fgdl (4) MCY;w-ts- czeksy (5) vyúsm ek'kzy 98. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu la;qdr jkt; ds izeq[k gs\ (1) cku dh&ewwu (2) jkwcvhz, ksosmks (3) ;qfd;k vekuks (4) følvhu ysxkmsz (5),aVksfu;ks xqvsjsl 99. nhun;ky mikè;k; xzke T;ksfr ;kstuk Hkkjr ljdkj dh,d ;kstuk gs ftlds varxzr xzkeh.k {ks=kksa esa fujarj fctyh iznku djus dk y{; j[kk x;k gs] bldh 'kq:vkr fdl o"kz dh xbz Fkh\ (1) o"kz 2013 (2) o"kz 2014 (3) o"kz 2015 (4) o"kz foùk ea=kh v:.k tsvyh us fdl u, djnkrk lsok ekwm;wy dks ykap fd;k gs\ (1) vk;dj lsrq (2) vk;dj lgk;rk (3) vk;dj fe=k (4) vk;dj lkfkh 101. xzkeh.k vk/kjhkwr lqfo/k fodkl fuf/ (RIDF) dks fdlds varxzr cuk;k x;k gs\ (1) xzkeh.k fodkl ea=kky; (2) Hkkjrh; fj koz csad (3) flmch (4) ukckmz (5) d`f"k ea=kky; 102. Lo;a lgk;rk lewgksa (,l-,p-th-) ds fmftvyhdj.k ds fy, ukckmz ds ik;yv izkstsdv dk uke crkb,& (1) bz&lkjfkh (2) bz&lkfkh (3) bz&'kfdr (4) bz&ukjh 103. fo'o dk igyk vkbz-,-bz-,- de laof/zr ;wjsfu;e (LEU) csad dgka [kksyk x;k gs\ (1) viqxkfulrku (2) dtkfdlrku (3) rqdzesfulrku (4) mtcsfdlrku (5) bzjku 104. MkW- ds-,l- pqx dk gky gh esa fu/u gks x;ka mugsa Hkkjr esa fueu esa ls fdlds firk ds :i esa tkuk tkrk gs\ (1) usúksykwth (2) dkfmz;ksykwmh (3) U;wjksykWth (4) xslvªks,avjksykwth (5) gsevkykwth 105. vjfoan iuxfm+;k ds blrhiqs ds ckn uhfr vk;ksx ds mikè;{k ds :i esa fdls fu;qdr fd;k x;k gs\ (1) dksf'kd clq (2) MkW- vfouk'k nhf{kr (3) MkW- jktho dqekj (4) vfer fe=k (5),- lqcze.;e 106. fdl ns'k us gky gh es a fo'o dh igyh Vª su dk vukoj.k fd;k gs] tks lsalj rduhd dh lgk;rk ls,d vkhkklh VS ªd ij pysxh\ (1) tkiku (2) phu (3) Hkkjr (4) ckaxykns'k 107. Hkkjr dk igyk varjkz"vªh; LVkWd,Dlpsat ^bafm;k vkbz-,u-,dl-* fueu esa ls fdldh lgk;d daiuh gs\ (1) vkj-ch-vkbz- (2) lsch (3) ch-,l-bz- (4),u-,l-bZ- (5),l-ch-vkbZ fdl jkt; ljdkj us [kqys esa 'kksp dh fuxjkuh o jksdfkke ds fy, ^xqm ekwfuzx* nlrs cukus dk fu.kz; fy;k gs\ (1) fnyyh ljdkj (2) eè; izns'k ljdkj (3) gfj;k.kk ljdkj (4) fcgkj ljdkj (5) egkjk"vª ljdkj 109. ck;ksfmxzsmscy dkmz is'k djus okyk ns'k dk igyk csad gs& (1),fDll csad (2),p-Mh-,iQ-lh- cs ad (3) ;l csad (4) vkbz-lh-vkbz-lh-vkbz- csad (5) y{eh foykl csad 110. o"kz 2017 focaymu iq:"k,dy f[krkc fotsrk gs& (1) vysd ksmj ksjso (2) jkiqsy umky (3) fud fdjfxvksl (4) jks kj iqsmjj 111. teew,oa d'ehj ^izfke&';ksd* iqy dk mn~?kkvu fdlus fd;k gs\ (1) ujsunz eksnh (2) jkeukfk dksfoan (3) fuezyk lhrkje.k (4) fufru xmdjh (5) esgcwck eqýrh 112. vks-ch-lh- ds mi&oxhzdj.k dh tkap ds fy, xfbr vk;ksx ds vè;{k ds :i esa fdls fu;qdr fd;k x;k gs\ (1) eksfgr lkgk (2) th- jksfg.kh (3) foosd ctkt (4) r:.kk lkgw (5) cythr flag 113. xzkeh.k {ks=kksa esa xhkzorh vksj Lruiku djkus okyh efgykvksa dh iks"k.k laca/h vko';drkvksa dks iwjk djus ds fy, fdl jkt; us ^ekfk: iw.kkz sa* ;kstuk dh 'kq:vkr dh gs\ (1) rsyaxkuk (2) vka/z izns'k (3) rfeyukmq (4) dukzvd (5) egkjk"vª Ph: ,

22 95. Name the first Payment Bank of India that 104. Dr. K.S. Chugh passed away recently. In launches integrated UPI on its digital platform. India, he is known as father of - (1) Nephrology (2) Cardiology (1) Airtel Payments Bank (3) Neurology (4) Gastroenterology (2) Paytm Payments Bank (5) Hematology (3) India Post Payments Bank 105. Who has been appointed as Vice chairman of NITI Aayog, after the resignation of Arvind (4) FINO Payments Bank Panagariya? (1) Kaushik Basu (2) Dr. Avinash Dixit 96. Commercial Paper can be issued in the denomination of - (3) Dr. Rajiv Kumar (4) Amit Mitra (5) A. Subramanian (1) ` 25,000 (2) ` 50, Which country has unveiled recently World's (3) ` 1,00,000 (4) ` 5,00,000 first train that operates on a virtual track using sensor technology? 97. Who has given the concept that 'Bad Money (1) Japan (2) China drives Good Money out of circulation'? (3) India (4) Bangladesh (1) Robert Giffen (2) Thomas Gresham 107. India's first international stock exchange 'India INX' is wholly subsidiary of - (3) J. R. Hicks (1) RBI (2) SEBI (4) W.J. Baumol (3) BSE (4) NSE (5) Alfred Marshall (5) SBI 98. Who among of the following is UN Chief? 108. Which state govt. has decided to form 'good (1) Ban Ki-Moon (2) Roberto Azevedo morning' squads to monitor and prevent open (3) Yukia Amano (4) Christine Lagarde defecation? (5) Antonio Guterres (1) Delhi Govt. 99. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (2) Madhya Pradesh Govt. is a scheme of Govt. of India designed to provide (3) Haryana Govt. continuous electricity to rural India, (4) Bihar Govt. was launched in - (5) Maharashtra Govt. (1) 2013 (2) Name the first bank in India to introduce biodegradable cards. (3) 2015 (4) 2016 (1) Axis Bank (2) HDFC Bank (5) None of the given options (3) Yes Bank (4) ICICI Bank 100. Finance Minister Arun Jaitley has (5) Laxmi Vilas Bank launched new tax payer service module, 110. Mens' Single title of the 2017 Wimbledon called - won by- (1) Aaykar Setu (2) Aaykar Sahayta (1) Alexander Zverev (2) Rafael Nadal (3) Aaykar Mitra (4) Aaykar Sathi (3) Nick Kyrgios (4) Roger Federer (5) None of above 101. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund 111. Who has inaugurated 'Pratham-Shyok' (RIDF) is maintained by- bridge in Jammu & Kashmir? (1) Ministry of Rural Development (1) Narendra Modi (2) RBI (2) Ram Nath Kovind (3) SIDBI (3) Nirmala Sitharaman (4) NABARD (4) Nitin Gadkari (5) Mehbooba Mufti (5) Ministry of Agriculture 112. Who has been appointed as Chairperson of 102. Name the pilot project of NABARD for a commission to examine the subcategorisations of OBC? Digitalisation of Self-Help Groups (SHGs). (1) e-sarthi (2) e- sathi (1) Mohit Saha (2) G. Rohini (3) e- shakti (4) e-nari (3) Vivek Bajaj (4) Taruna Sahu (5) Baljit Singh 103. Where has opened the World's first IAEA Low 113. To meet the nutritional needs of pregnant Enriched Uranium (LEU) Bank? and lactating women in rural areas, which (1) Afghanistan (2) Kazakhstan state has launched 'Mathru Poorna? (1) Telangana (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Turkmenistan (4) Uzbekistan (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Karnataka (5) Iran (5) Maharashtra Ph: ,

23 114. fueufyf[kr esa ls fdlus o"kz 2017 esa lkfgr; esa ukscsy iqjldkj thrk gs\ (1) dktqvks bf'kxqjks (2) csjh csfj'k (3) fdi FkksuZ (4) tsiqjh gkwy (5) tksvkfpe ÚS ad 115. iwtk dkfn;ku fdl [ksy ls lacaf/r gsa\ (1) fteukflvdl (2) eqddsckth (3) oq'kq (4) LDoS'k (5) iqkwewzyk ou 116. efgyk,oa cky fodkl ea=kky; ds varxzr vk;ksftr ^owesu vkwiq bafm;k vkwxkfud iqsflvoy* ds rhljs laldj.k dh estckuh dksu&lk 'kgj dj jgk gs\ (1) Hkksiky (2) ubz fnyyh (3) okjk.klh (4) xka/huxj (5) vejkorh 117. Hkkjr vksj vesfjdk ds lkfk fdl ns'k us o"kz 2017 ekykckj ukslsfud vh;kl ds laldj.k esa Hkkx fy;k Fkk\ (1) tkiku (2) Jhyadk (3) usiky (4) Úkal (5) ckaxykns'k 118. fdl csad us Hkqxrku okwysv daiuh ^ÚhpktZ* dk `375 djksm+ esa vf/xzg.k fd;k gs\ (1),fDll csad (2),p-Mh-,iQ-lh- cs ad (3) ;l csad (4) vkbz-lh-vkbz-lh-vkbz- casd 119. fueu esa ls fdl jkt; us gky gh esa ns'k ds igys bysfdvªd cl lsok dh 'kq:vkr dh gs\ (1) mùkj izns'k (2) mùkjk[kam (3) xqtjkr (4) fgekpy izns'k (5) jktlfkku 120. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk 'kcn csfdax ls lacaf/r gs\ (1) MqM psd (2) dksisesav (3) lczksxs'ku (4) jhdksies av (5) fliyv fcfyax Ph: ,

24 114. Who among the following has won Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2017? (1) Kazuo Ishiguro (2) Barry Barish (3) Kip Thorne (4) Jeffrey Hall (5) Joachim Frank 115. Pooja Kadian is associated with which sports? (1) Gymnastics (2) Boxing (3) Wushu (4) Squash (5) Formula One 116. Which city is hosting the 3rd annual 'Women of India Organic Festival' under the Ministry of Women and Child Development? (1) Bhopal (2) New Delhi (3) Varanasi (4) Gandhi Nagar (5) Amaravati 117. With India and US, which country has participated in edition of 2017 Malabar Naval exercise? (1) Japan (2) Sri Lanka (3) Nepal (4) France (5) Bangladesh 118. Which bank has acquired payments wallet 'FreeCharge' ` 373 crore? (1) Axis Bank (2) HDFC Bank (3) Yes Bank (4) ICICI Bank 119. Which state has launched country's first electric bus services recently? (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Uttrakhand (3) Gujarat (4) Himachal Pradesh (5) Rajasthan 120. Which among of the following terms is related with Banking? (1) Dud Cheque (2) Copayment (3) Subrogation (4) Recoupment (5) Split Billing Ph: ,

25 ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION Direction ( ) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold in the passage to help you locale them while answering some of the questions. Governments have traditionally equated economic progress with steel mills and cement factories. While urban centres thrive and city dwellers get rich, hundreds of millions of famers remain mired in poverty. However fears of food shortages, a rethinking of anti-poverty priorities and crushing recession in 2008 are causing a dramatic shift in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture. The last time when the world s farmers felt such love was in the 1970 s. At that time, as food prices spiked, there was real concern that the world was facing a crisis in which the planet was simply unable to produce enough grain and meat for an expanding population. Governments across the developing world and international aid organisations plowed investment into agricultur e in t he ear ly 1970s, while technological breakthroughs, like high-yield strains of import ant food crops, boosted production. The result was the Green Revolution and food production exploded. But the Green Revolution became a victim of its own success. Food prices plunged by some 60% by the late 1980 s from their peak in the mid s. Policy-makers and aid workers turned their attention to the poor s other pressing needs, such as health care and education. Farming got starved of resources and investment. By 2004 s aid directed at agriculture sank to 3.5% and agriculture lost its glitter, Also, as consumers in high-growth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat. So grain once used for human consumption got diverted to beef up livestock. By early 2008, panicked buying by importing countries and restrictions slapped on grain exports by some big producers helped drive prices up to heights not seen for three decades. Making matters worse, land and resources got reallocated to product cash crop such as biofuels and the result was that voluminous reserves of grain evaporated. Protests broke out across the emerging world and fierce food riots toppled governments. This spurred global leaders into action. This made them aware that food security is one of the fundamental issues in the world that has to be dealt with in order to maintain administrative and political stability. This also spurred the US, which traditionally provisioned food aid from American grain surpluses to help needy nations to move towards investing in farm sectors around the globe to boost productivity. This move helped countries become more productive for themselves and be in a better position to feed their own people. Africa, which missed out on the first Green Revolution due to poor policy and limited resources, also witnessed a change. Swayed by the success of East Asia, the primary povertyfighting method favoured by many policy-makers in Africa was to get farmers off their farms and into modern jobs in factories and urban centres. But that started proved to be highly insufficient. Income levels in the countryside badly trailed those in cities while the FAO estimated that the number of poor going hungry in 2000 reached an all-time high at more than one billion. In India, on the other hand, with only 40% of its farmland irrigated, entire economic boom currently underway is held hostage by the unpredictable monsoon. With much of India s farming areas suffering from drought this year, the government will haw a tough time meeting its economic growth targets. In report, Goldman Sachs predicted that if this year too receives weak rains. It could cause agriculture to contract by 2% this Fiscal years, making the government s 7% GDP-growth target look a bit rich -. Another Green revolution is the need of the hour and to make it a reality, the global community still has much backbreaking farm work to do Which of the following is an adverse impact of the Green Revolution? (1) Unchecked crop yields resulted in large tracts of becoming barren (2) Withdrawal of fiscal impetus from agriculture to other sectors (3) Famers began soliciting government subsidies their produce (4) Farmers rioted as food prices fell so low that they not make ends meet Ph: ,

26 122. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase making the government s 7% GDP growth target look a bit rich? (1) India is unlikely to achieve the targeted growth rate. (2) Allocation of funds to agriculture has raised in India chances of having high GDP. (3) Agricultural growth has artificially inflated India s GDP and such growth is not real. (4) India is likely to have one of the highest GDP rates. (5) A large portion of India s GDP is contributed agriculture Which of the following factors was/were responsible for neglect of the farming sector after the Green Revolution? (i) Steel and cement sectors generated more revenue the government as compared to agriculture. (ii) Large scale protests against favouring agriculture the cost of other important sectors such as education and health care. (iii)attention of policy-makers and aid organisations was diverted from agriculture to other sectors. (1) Only (i) and (ii) (2) Only (iii) (3) Only (ii) and (iii) (4) Only (i) and (iii) (5) All (i), (ii) and (iii) 124. What is the author s main objective in writing the passage? (1) Criticising developed countries for not holstering economic growth in poor nations (2) Analysing the disadvantages of the Green Revolution (3) Persuading experts that a strong economy depends on industrialization and not on agriculture. (4) Making a case for the international society to engineer a second Green Revolution (5) Rationalising the faulty agriculture politic emerging countries 125. What encouraged Africa policy maker to focus on urban jobs? (1) Misapprehension that it would alleviate poverty as it did in other country (2) Rural development outstripped urban development in many parts of Africa (3) Breaking out of protests in the country and the fear that the government would topple (4) Blind imitation of Western models of development 126. What motivated the US to focus on investing in agriculture across the globe? (1) To make developing countries become more reliant on US aid (2) To ensure grain surpluses so that the US had no need to import food (3) To make those countries more self-sufficient to whom it previously provided food (4) To establish itself in the market before the high growth giants such a India and China could establish themselves Direction (127128): Choose the words/ group of the words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage STARVED (1) deprived (2) disadvantaged (3) hungry (4) fasting (5) emaciated 128. PLOWED (1) cultivation (2) bulldozed (3) recovered (4) instilled (5) withdrew Direction ( ): Choose the words/ group of the words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage PRESSING (1) unpopular (2) undemanding (3) unobtrusive (4) unsuitable (5) unimportant 130. EVAPORATED (1) absorbed (2) accelerated (3) grew (4) plunged (5) mismanaged Direction (131135): Each of the following questions begins with a sentence that has either one or two blanks. The blanks indicate that a piece of the sentence is missing. Each sentence is followed by five answer choices that consist of words or phrases. Select the answer choice that completes the sentence best. Ph: ,

27 131. Her concern for the earthquake victims her reputation as a callous person. (a) restored (b) rescinded (c) created (d) proved (e) belied 132. Due to unforeseen circumstances, the original plans were no longer and were therefore. (a) relevant adaptable (b) applicable rejected (c) expedient adopted (d) acceptable appraised (e) capable allayed 133. The microscopic cross section of a sandstone generally shows a surface, each tiny layer representing an of deposition that may have taken centuries or even millennia to accumulate. (a) ridged enlargement (b) multifaceted angle (c) distinctive area (d) stratified interval (e) coarse episode 134. The convict has always insisted upon his own and now at last there is new evidence to him. (a) defensiveness incarcerate (b) culpability exonerate (c) blamelessness anathematize (d) innocence vindicate (e) contrition condemn 135. The theory of plate tectonics was the subject of much when it was first proposed by Alfred Wegener, but now most geophysicists its validity. (a) opposition grant (b) consideration see (c) acclamation boost (d) prognostication learn (e) contention bar Direction ( ): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. No Error. (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any) 136. The complex nature of the(1)/modern civilization and explosion of (2)/knowledge have made (3)/the education process very complicated.(4)/no error (5) 137. Anita s new office (1)/is quite spacious but (2)/most of the furniture is (3)/old and should be changed. (4)/No error (5) 138. Maharashtra is already facing so many water (1)/ scarcity problem on top of that (2)/ water is getting wasted in holi (3)/ it is not at all tolerable. (4)/No error (5) 139. Honesty and integrity are (1)/ the qualities which cannot be (2)/ done away with and (3)/ hence assumes a lot of importance. (4)/ No error (5) 140. A skilful advertiser may be able to create (1)/practically monopoly for himself (2)/not because his product is superior to (3)/but he has succeeded in including people to believe that it is. (4)/No error (5) 141. In the larger scheme of foreign policy, (1)/ the Obama administration also had to deal (2)/by a rising, ambitious (3)/China and a resurgent, vengeful Russia. (4)/No error (5) 142. There is much insurance (1)/ disputes nowadays because of (2)/ most people do not fully (3)/ understand the terms and conditions of their policies. (4)/ No error (5) 143. We had made every effort (1)/ to ensure that a (2)/compromise was reached and (3)/that the deal was signed. (4)/No error (5) 144. The metrological department (1)/ predicted that the (2)/ rains and thunderstorm may (3)/continue throughout today. (4)/No error (5) 145. Farmhouse owners in the city, (1)/who had till now paid property tax (2)/ for only the built-up area of the plot, will soon (3)/have to pay tax to the government for vacant land also. (4)/No error (5) Directions ( ): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option (5) (No correction required) as the correct choice. The only other country where employers reported greater difficulties in finding required skills was Japan whose working-age population has been (146) [shrinking] for a quarter century. Meanwhile, India is awaiting a demographic div idend, which requires substantial investments in education and training. Ph: ,

28 Let immigration policy not be an (147) [intrepid] in attracting talent. It is likely that the welcome mat to foreign students will not immediately attract many from East Asia, Southeast Asia or Latin America. Our neighbours Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka will be the most (148) [courageous] source of talent. We should offer to give residency permits to graduating foreign students and skilled workers, including those from South Asia. For security reasons, Pakistani students may have to be kept out. But we have the (149) [valiant] to make India a highly attractive place of learning and work to the most talented students from Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Initiatives to (150) [receptive] recruit the best PhDs, Indian or foreign, in Indian universities would make them more attractive to foreign students. We get a large number of Afr ican students, who prefer India to the US or Europe. They find Indian universities academically strong without being (151) [bearing] expensive. But they face racism and (152) [discrimination] simply account of the colour of their skin. The best of Africa are as good as the best of anywhere in the world. We have the potential to attract the best from Africa, train them for Indian needs, offer them permanent residency and a path to citizenship. In western countries, a substantial (153) [succeeding] of scientists and skilled professionals are foreign-born. Switzerland tops the list with 57% of the scientists, working and studying, in the country being foreigners, according to the Globe Science Survey of The (154) [distance] figure is 46% in Canada, 45% in Australia, 38% in the US, 33% in Britain, 23% in Germany, and 17% in France. The proportion of foreign scientists working or studying in India, in comparison, is (155) [negligible] less than 1% (1) assuming (2) inevitable (3) endmost (4) adventurous (5) No correction required 147. (1) obstacle (2) consequent (3) dauntless (4) gallant (5) No correction required (1) bantam (2) immediate (3) ensuing (4) heroic (5) No correction required 149. (1) diligent (2) valorous (3) potential (4) liberal (5) No correction required (1) proactively (2) acquiescent (3) dignify (4) quiescent (5) No correction required 151. (1) couriers (2) resolute (3) audacious (4) prohibitively (5) No correction required (1) docile (2) enduring (3) enduring (4) enterprising (5) No correction required 153. (1) latent (2) proportion (3) daunted (4) apathetic (5) No correction required (1) stolid (2) departing (3) corresponding (4) forbearing (5) No correction required 155. (1) patient (2) static (3) tractable (4) phlegmatic (5) No correction required. Directions ( ): In the following questions, you are required to identify and assess the logical Relationship between a given pair of words in the question, then choose a pair of words from the options that exhibit the same logical relationship as the original pair in the questions GETS ON : BUS : : (1) hopes : fear (2) enters : account book (3) disembarks : airplane (4) boards : rowboat (5) None of the above 157. MUMBLE : INDISTINCT : : (1) scribble : illegible (2) screech : gentle (3) swagger : timid (4) sneeze : deliberate (5) None of the above 158. FOOTBALL : SPORT : : (1) rhythm : poetry (2) verse : literature (3) dancing : ballet (4) research : biology (5) None of the above 159. SAILOR : LIGHTHOUSE : : (1) snake : hiss (2) air raid : siren (3) car horn : driver (4) sleeper : smoke alarm (5) None of the above 160. SIMMER : BOIL : : (1) glide : drift (2) gambol : play (3) drizzle : downpour (4) stagnate : flow (5) None of the above Ph: ,

29 161. ROM dk iw.kz :i gs. (1) Random Only Memory (2) Readable Only Memory (3) Real Online Memory (4) Random Other Memory (5) Read Only Memory 162. ykwftd fpi dk nwljk uke gs (1) PROM (2) eseksjh (3) ekbozqksizkslslj (4) ROM 163. dsoy "0" vksj "1" ij vk/kfjr uacj fllve dks dgrs gs aa (1) ckbujh fllve (2) ckvzj fllve (3) uacj fllve (4) gsdlkmsfley fllve (5) Lis'ky fllve bap okyh ÝykWih fmld dh {kerk gs. (1) 1.40 MB (2) 1.44 GB (3) 1.40 GB (4) 1.45 MB (5) 1.44 MB 165. fueu esa ls dksu lk dei;wvj dk vfhkuu fgllk ugha gs? (1) CPU (2) ekml (3) ekwfuvj (4) UPS 166. fueu esa ls dksu CPU dk (ds) Hkkx ugha gs (gsa)? (1) izkbejh LVksjst (2) jftlvj (3) davªksy ;wfuv (4) ALU 167. dei;wvj vksj iqksu ds chp dh fhkuurk dk feyku djus okyh fmokbl gsa (1) LAN (2) os am jhmj (3) TCP/IF (4) LdSuj (5) eksme 168. gkmzos;j vksj lkwývos;j ds ml oqks afcus'ku dks dgrs gsa tks dei;wvjksa ds chp de;qfuds'ku vksj tkudkjh ds bysdvªkwfud VªkWUliQj dks vuqefr nsrk gsa (1) usvodz (2) csdvi fllve (3) lozj (4) isfjisqjy (5) eksme 169. MkVk Vªkalfe'ku dh lcls rst LihM dk fu:i.k fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu djrk gs? (1) cs amfom~fk (2) bps (3) gbps (4) kbps (5) mbps dai;wvj Kku 170. oymz okbm osc dh og izeq[k fo'ks"krk dksu lh gs tks bls lh[kus vksj blrseky djus esa ljy cuk nsrh gs? (1) MkVkcsl bavjisql (2) xzkfiqdy VsDLV bavjisql (3) xzkfiqdy ;wtj bavjisql (4) IokbaV&Vw&IokbaV izksvksdkwy 171. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk lr; gs? (1) ckbujh uacj esa ckbv,d flaxy fmftv gksrk gs (2) fcv fmftvy uaclz ds,d lewg dks fjiztsav djrk gs (3) vkb fmftv ds ckbujh uacj dks ckbv dgrs gsa (4) vkb fmftv ds ckbujh uacj dks fcv dgrs gs 172. cm+s isekus ij HkkSxksfyd :i ls vyx&vyx iqsys gq, vkwfiql LANs,d dkwiksjszv ds mi;ksx ls dusdv fd, tk ldrs gsaaa (1) CAN (2) LAN (3) DAN (4) WAN (5) TAN 173. lsdsamjh LVksjst ehfm;k ls gkmzfmld esa lkwývos;j izksxzkeksa dks dkwih djus dh izfozq;k dks dgrs gsa? (1) dufiqxjs'ku (2) MkmuyksM (3) LVksjst (4) viyksm (5) bulvkwys'ku 174. dk iz;ksx djrs gq, osc ist ds fy, dksm fy[kk tkrk gsa (1) fiqýfk tsusjs'ku ysaxost (2) foufti (Winzip) (3) iyz (Perl) (4) gkbij VsDLV ekdzvi ysaxost (5) URL 175. NksVs,fIyds'ku izksxzke tks osc ist ij pyrs gsa vksj ;g lqfuf'pr djrs gsa fd iqkez Bhd ls iwjk gks x;k gs ;k,fues'ku izksokbm djrs gsa mugsa dgrs gsaaa (1) ÝyS'k (2) LikbMlZ (3) dwdhat (4),IysV~l (5) LikDlZ 176. fjys'kuy MkVkcsl esa] ;g,d MkVk LVªDpj gs tks,d flaxy VkWfid laca/h buiqkesz'ku dks jkst vksj dkwyeksa esa vkwxszukbt djrk gs : (1) CykWd (2) fjdkwmz (3) V~;wiy (4) Vscy (5) dekam ykbu bavjiqsl Ph: ,

30 COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE 161. ROM stands for. (1) Random Only Memory (2) Readable Only Memory (3) Real Online Memory (4) Random Other Memory (5) Read Only Memory 162. Another name for a logic chip is (1) PROM (2) memory (3) microprocessor (4) ROM 163. The number system based on "0" and "1" only is known as. (1) Binary System (2) Barter System (3) Number System (4) Hexadecimal System (5) Special System 164. The capacity of 3.5-inch floppy disk is. (1) 1.40 MB (2) 1.44 GB (3) 1.40 GB (4) 1.45 MB (5) 1.44 MB 165. Which of the following is not an integral part of a computer? (1) CPU (2) Mouse (3) Monitor (4) UPS 166. Which of the following is not a part of the CPU? (1) Primary storage (2) Registers (3) Control unit (4) ALU 167. The device that reconciles differences between computers and phones is the. (1) LAN (2) wand reader (3) TCP/IF (4) scanner (5) modem 168. A combination of hardware and software that allows communication and electronic transfer of information between computers is a. (1) Network (2) Backup system (3) Server (4) Peripheral (5) Modem 169. Which of the following represents the fastest data transmission speed? (1) bandwidth (2) bps (3) gbps (4) kbps (5) mbps 170. What is the major feature of the World Wide Web that makes it simple to learn and use? (1) Database interface (2) Graphical text interface (3) Graphical user interface (4) Point-to-Point Protocol 171. Which of the following is true? (1) byte is a single digit in a binary number (2) bit represents a grouping of digital numbers (3) eight-digit binary number is called a byte (4) eight-digit binary number is called a bit 172. Office LANs that are spread geographically apart on a large scale can be connected using a corporate. (1) CAN (2) LAN (3) DAN (4) WAN (5) TAN 173. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called? (1) configuration (2) download (3) storage (4) upload (5) installation 174. The code for a Web page is written using. (1) a fifth generation language (2) Winzip (3) Perl (4) Hyper Text Markup Language (5) URL 175. Small application programs that run on a Web page and may ensure a form is completed properly or provide animation are known as (1) flash (2) spiders (3) cookies (4) applets (5) sparks 176. In a relational database, this is a data structure that organizes the information about a single topic into rows and columns. (1) block (2) record (3) tuple (4) table (5) command line interface Ph: ,

31 177. dk iz;ksx djrs gq, igys dai;wvj izksxzke fd, x, FksA (1),lsafCyh ysaxost (2) e'khu ysaxost (3) lkslz dksm (4) vkwctsdv dksm (5) LiSxSVh dksm 178. tc ikabvj ij iksft'ku fd;k tkrk gs rc bldk vkdkj gkfk tslk gksrk gsa (1) xzkej,jj (2) gkbijfyad (3) LozQhu fvi (4) Lisfyax,jj (5) iqkeszfvax,jj 179. dai;wvj ds daiksus av Bhd ls vkwijsv gks jgs gs a vksj dusdvsm gs a ;g lqfuf'pr djus ds fy, dksu lk izkslsl psd djrk gs? (1) cwfvax (2) izkslsflax (3) lsfoax (4),fMfVax 180. ;wtj ;g dsls fu/kzfjr djrk gs fd dai;wvj ij dksu ls izksxzke miyc/ gs? (1) gkmz fmld dh izkwifvzt psd djds (2) cwfvax izkslsl ds nksjku bulvkwym izksxzke fllve psd djds (3) bulvkym izksxzke dh fylv ds fy, vkwijsfvax fllve psd djds (4) fmld ij lso dh xbz fo eku iqkbysa psd djds 181. fueu esa ls dksu lh og buiqv fmokbl gs ftls iz;ksdrk tc lery lrg ij fgykrk gs rks og mlh ds vuq:i LozQhu ij ikbavj dks fgykrh gs? (1) os am jhmj (2) ekml (3) dhcksmz (4) ckj&dksm jhmj (5) LdSuj 182. ckj dksm jhmj dk,d mnkgj.k gsa (1) izkslsflax fmokbl (2) LVksjst fmokbl (3) buiqv fmokbl (4) vkmviqv fmokbl (5) fiz avj 183. ;fn vki yksxksa dks fu;fer :i ls i=k Hkstrs gsa rks vki i=k rs;kj djus ds fy, fdl izdkj ds izksxzke dk iz;ksx djsaxs? (1) gkmzos;j (2) fllve lkwývos;j (3) ;wfvfyvh lkwývos;j (4),Iyhds'ku lkwývos;j 184. ekml ;k dhcksmz dh lgk;rk ls dei;wvj izkir djrk gsa (1) bulvz (2) bulvªd'ku (3) xkbmsal (4) buiqv 185. MkWV&esfVªDl fizavj dk,d izdkj gsa (1) Vsi (2) fiz avj (3) fmld (4) cl 186.,d fcfy;u dsjsdvjksa dks fueu esa ls dksu fu:fir djrk gs? (1) ckbv (2) xhxkckbv (3) fdyksckbv (4) esxkckbv (5) VsjkckbV 187. fueu esa ls fdl esuw izdkj dks MªkWi&Mkmu esuw Hkh dgrs gs a? (1) ÝykbZ&Mkmu (2) ikwi&mkmu (3) ikwi&vi (4) iqy&vi (5) iqy&mkmu 188. LozQhu ij og rlohj D;k gs tks izksxzke ;k iqkby tsls fdlh vkwctsdv dks fu:fir djrh gs? (1) Liwy (2) NOS (3) ist (4) IokbaVj (5) vkbdu 189. dei;wvj lk{kj ekus tkus ds fy, fueu esa ls fdldh vko';drk ugha gs? (1) dei;wvj dks funsz'k nsus okys vuqns'k fy[kus dh {kerk (2) dei;wvj ds egro] cgqmi;ksfxrk vksj lekt esa O;kidrk dh tkx:drk (3) ;g Kku] fd dei;wvj D;k gs vksj ;s dsls dke djrs gsa (4) ljy,fiyds'ku dk iz;ksx djrs gq, dei;wvjks a ls bavjsdv djus dh {kerk 190. ekbozqksizkslslj fpi ds ml,fj;k dks Hkh dgrs gsa ftldk iz;ksx mu bulvªd'kuksa vksj MkVk dks vlfkkbz :i ls LVksj djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gs lahkor% izkslslj ftudk iz;ksx izk;% djsxka (1) ALU (2) cl (3) dsp (4) CPU (5) ÝyS'k 191. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk dfku lr; gs? (1) opqzvy esejh gkmz Mªkbo ij Lisl gs tgk vksijsfvax fllve esesjh&ckmam gksus ij MkVk LVksj djuk vkjahk djrh gsa (2) RAM ls MkVk,Dlsl djuk opqzvy esejh ls MkVk,Dlsl djus ls /hek gksrk gsa (3) opqzvy eseksjh ls MkVk iz;qdr djrs le;] vksijsfvax fllve RAM iqkby uked iqkby fcym djrh gsa (4) ;fn dksbz dei;wvj esesjh ckmam gs rks vf/d RAM tksm+us ls lel;k gy ugha gksxha Ph: ,

32 177. The first computers were programmed using. (1) assembly language (2) machine language (3) source code (4) object code (5) spaghetti code 178. When the pointer is positioned on a, it is shaped like a hand. (1) grammar error (2) hyperlink (3) screen tip (4) spelling error (5) formatting error 179. Which process checks to ensure the components of the computer are operating and connected properly? (1) Booting (2) Processing (3) Saving (4) Editing 180. How can the user determine which programs are available on a computer? (1) Checking the hard disk properties (2) Viewing the installed programs during the booting process (3) Checking the operating system for a list of installed programs (4) Checking the existing files saved on disk 181. Which of the following is an input device that, when moved by the user on a flat surface, causes a pointer on the screen to move accordingly? (1) wand reader (2) mouse (3) keyboard (4) bar-code reader (5) scanner 182. A bar code reader is an example of a(n). (1) processing device (2) storage device (3) input device (4) output device (5) printer 183. If you regularly send letters to people, what type of program would you use to create the letters? (1) Hardware (2) System software (3) Utility software (4) Application software 184. A computer gets with the help of mouse or keyboard. (1) insert (2) instructions (3) guidance (4) input 185. Dot-matrix Printer is a type of. (1) tape (2) printer (3) disk (4) bus 186. Which of the following represents one billion characters? (1) Byte (2) Gigabyte (3) Kilobyte (4) Megabyte (5) Terabyte Which of the following menu types is also called a drop down menu? (1) Fly-down (2) Pop-down (3) Pop-up (4) Pull-up (5) Pull-down 188. What is an onscr een picture that represents objects, such as a program or file? (1) Spool (2) NOS (3) Page (4) Pointer (5) Icon 189. Which of the following is not necessary to be considered computer-literate? (1) The ability to write the instructions that direct a computer ( 2) An awareness of the computer's importance ver satility, and pervasiveness in society (3) Knowledge of what computers are and how they work (4) The ability to interact with computers using simple applications 190. An area of the microprocessor chip used to temporary store instructions and data that the processor is likely to use frequently is termed a(n). (1) ALU (2) Bus (3) Cache (4) CPU (5) Flash 191. Which of the following statements is true concerning? (1) Virtual memory is the space on the hard drive where the operating system begins to store data when it becomes memorybound (2) Accessing data from RAM is a slower than accessing data from virtual memory (3) When it is using virtual memory, the operating system builds a file called the RAM file (4) If a computer is memory-bound, adding more RAM will not solve the problem Ph: ,

33 192. in fcv dk y?kq :i gsa (1) esxkckbv (2) ckbujh ysaxost (3) ckbujh fmftv (4) ckbujh uacj 193. uhps fn, x, lhkh in LizsM'khV ls lecfu/r gsa] flok;. (1) odz'khv (2) lsy (3) iqkwe;qzyk (4) ok;jl fmvsd'ku 194.,slk fmokbl gsa ftudk iz;ksx VsyhdEI;qfuds'ku ykbuksa ij MkVk VªkUlfeV djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gsa (1) MªkbOl (2) Mªkbo cst~ (3) ekwmse (4) IySViQkeZ 195. yxhkx,d fcfy;u ckbv~l gksrs gsaaa (1) fdyksckbv (2) fcv (3) fxxkckbv (4) esxkckbv 196. Kkr lksývos;j cx ds fy, fjis;j tks lkeku;r% bavjusv ij fcuk pktz miyc/ gksrk gs mls mls dgrs gsaa (1) o'kzu (2) isp (3) V~;wVksfj;y (4) FAQ 197. dai;wvj MkVk xsnj (bdb~bk) djrs gsa bldk vfkz gs fd os iz;ksdrkkvksa dks MkVk djus nsrs gsaaa (1) izstsuv (2) buiqv (3) vkmviqv (4) LVksj 198. fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu&lk in dsoy usvodz dk dusd'ku gs ftls lkfk tksm+k tk ldrk gs? (1) opqzvy izkbosv usvodz (2) bavjusv (3) bavªkusv (4),DLVªkusV 199.,d izdkj dh LFkk;h esejh gs tks LVkVZvi ds fy, dei;wvj dks ftudh t:jr gksrh gs mu lhkh bulvªd'ku dks gksym djrh gs vksj ikoj can djus ij ;g bjst ugha gksrh gsa (1) usvodz bavjiqsl dksmz (NIC) (2) CPU (3) RAM (4) ROM 200. lozlz os dei;wvj gs a tks fjlkslszt izksokbm djrs gsaa (1) usvodz (2) esuizqse (3) lqijdai;wvj (4) DykbaV ls dusdvsm nwljs dei;wvjksa dks 900+ Ph: ,

34 192. The term bit is short for. (1) megabyte (2) binary language (3) binary digit (4) binary number 193. All of the following terms are associated with spreadsheet software except. (1) worksheet (2) cell (3) formula (4) virus detection 194. are devices used to transmit data over telecommunications lines. (1) Drives (2) Drive bays (3) Modems (4) Platforms 195. A is approximately one billion bytes. (1) kilobyte (2) bit (3) gigabyte (4) megabyte 196. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n). (1) version (2) patch (3) tutorial (4) FAQ 197. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to data. (1) present (2) input (3) output (4) store 198. Which of the following terms is just the connection of networks that can be joined together? (1) virtual private network (2) internet (3) intranet (4) extranet 199. is a form of permanent memory that holds all the instructions the computer needs to start up and does not get erased when the power is turned off. (1) The Network Interface Card (NIC) (2) The CPU (3) RAM (4) ROM 200. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a. (1) network (2) mainframe (3) supercomputer (4) client Ph: ,